I’ve been using the Living Language Spanish (advanced) course, which I highly recommend, and I’m a little bit confused with some of this object pronoun business.
They say “Object pronouns are often used together with the objects they are supposed to replace.
- Viviana lo quiere conocer a su poeta preferido.
Viviana wants to meet her favorite poet.
An indirect object is often combined with a redundant indirect object pronoun.
- Juan le va a comprar un libro a su ahijado.
Juan is going to buy his godchild a book.”
Which I have no trouble with, until the questions at the end of the chapter. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate pronoun:
- ¿____ diste el informe al jefe?
- Sí, ____ ____ dí.
I fully understand that the second line of the dialog should be “Sí, se lo dí”, but the answer key says the first line should be “¿Le diste el informe al jefe?” and I don’t get why they chose ‘Le’ as the pronoun. If we often have redundancies with both direct and indirect objects, why did they choose to have a redundancy with the indirect object rather than the direct object? To be clear, I’m not asking about the difference between le/lo or anything like that. I’m basically asking why they chose to say “The boss did you give the form to the boss?” Instead of “the form did you give the form to the boss?” if we were to translate literally.
Thanks in advance.
Hey team
Can someone please explain again under what circumstances does one keep the INDIRECT OBJECT PRONOUN at the beginning of the sentence despite the fact that the OBJECT is present later on in the sentence?
E.g. No le tengo miedo a la melancolía
E.g. No le quiero a mi hermano
P.S. A source of information to read over this topic would be much appreciated also. Thank you.
Hey everyone,
I have asked about excluding the IOP here. But I noticed when “dar gracias” is used, I’ve seen the IOP not used. For example:
En su carta de renuncia, el ministro dio gracias a sus colaboradores
Why is that? I have heard it’s for poetic affect
Can someone tell me the difference in these pairs? I took out the indirect object in one and left the other.
¿Puedes dar el libro?
¿Puedes darme el libro?
No me recibí ninguna notificación de que había llegado mi paquete.
No recibí ninguna notificación de que había llegado mi paquete.
Do both convey the same meaning?
I was beginning my new years' resolution to practice up my spanish by embarking on "la casa de los espiritus" by isabella allende, when I ran into the following in a sentence:
>...la cintura tan ajustada, que cuando se soltaba la faja pasaba media hora con retorcijones de barriga hasta que las tripas se le acomodaban en su posición normal
I believe I grasp the meaning well enough: "... the waist so tight that when she took off the girdle it was half an hour with stomach cramps until her guts rearranged themselves into their normal position"
But I don't really follow what "se" is doing in "se le acomodaban". "Acomodaban" is referring to the guts, "le" is referring to the the owner of the guts, but what does "se" refer to (if anything)?
I've been studying French for about a year and a half and one of the things that trips me up are the indirect and direct object pronouns. I'm having a hard time listening to phrases like "Je ne te les ai pas donné" and processing what is said, especially when it's spoken in a typical fast pace. It ends up being "Je ne blah blah blah pas donné" whereas if it was something like "Je n'ai pas donné un cadeau à toi", I can keep up (barely but no brain freeze). My brain can only handle so much brute force repetition, any tips or advice for how I can work this weakness? Just more exposure over time?
Classical Chinese has 7 canonical sentence types, and from what I understood the sentence type described above in the title is not among them. Is this correct?
Edit: Oops, I wrote (Classical) above because I thought I was on another sub...
Can someone explain, like explaining to a dummy how they work. My private teacher has explained like a thousand times. My Colombian girlfriend tried also but I can’t seem to grasp it.
How would an ENGLISH speaker understand this?
hi, i am really new to reddit and dont know how to ask questions properly here. i am sorry if i sound a bit off. So here it goes:
Question #1:
"Please give me directions to your house"
Here the subject is you(i guess)(not mentioned). So D.O.= Direction, I.O.= Me Is it correct?
Question #2:
"Andy offered to help you with your homework "
Here the subject is Andy. So D.O.= You, I.O.= homework why is it not correct? do we even have any indirect object here? is this offered a causative verb?
Question #3:
can an adjective be used as an object of a sentence or it's just the nouns and pronouns? Can you please give me an example?
i appreciate your time here. thank you so much in advance.😀
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The first one has to do with using lo in a "general" (for lack of a better word) way. I understand how it's used in more standard contexts when it replaces el or la for example, but I'm learning that it's often used in platitudes and whatnot as well. For instance, the phrase "dinero lo cambia todo." What purpose does lo serve in this sentence? Is it just for emphasis or is it necessary in order to sound right? And what are some other contexts where lo is used in such a way?
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I'm also looking to strengthen my understanding of how to shorten phrases that use indirect object pronouns. To my understanding, you can shorten a phrase like "le compré la flor a mi hija" to "se la compré". I guess my question here ultimately would be how can I improve my understanding of when to use se in order to shorten a sentence? It seems to me that there are other situations it's used in similar fashions, but I don't quite understand when and where to use it at this point.
Thanks!
As I'm learning Spanish I see sentences that mean the same but use slightly different structures, and I'm curious if there is a reason you would use one or the other. Or maybe if one is more commonly used
So for example.
Compré está fruta y la voy a lavar Versus Compré está fruta y voy a lavarla
It's easier for me to make sentences like the second example because it's closer to the English format but I'm curious which is used more by native speakers
What are the different interpretations/connotations of the following sentences to a knowledgeable Spanish speaker:
"¿Te enciendo la luz?"
vs.
"¿Puedo encender tu luz?"
"¿Debo encender tu luz?"
Duolingo treats the first sentence as roughly equivalent to either "Can I turn on your light for you?" or "Should I turn on your light for you?".
However, Duolingo generally treats "Poder" and "Deber" as distinct, so you would be marked wrong for translating "Can I turn on the light" using "Debo". So it seems weird that it treats the first sentence the same as the other two.
Looking at the contraction tables, I can see how:
-me +-o = -mo (it to me)
-no + -o = -no-lo (it to us)
-te + -as = -tas (them to you)
But what about if you want to use me/te/você/nós/vocês as direct objects, as when you would say:
He sent us to them.
She gave me to him.
None of the grammar charts I have in front of me speak to this situation. Would you say:
Ele enviou-nos-lhes.
Ela deu-me-lhe.
Or would you do a work-around, such as:
Ele enviou-nos a eles.
Ela deu-me a ele.
I can't figure out how statements like this (albeit maybe rare) are constructed in European Portuguese, either in the formal or colloquial language.
Let's say I have a sentence like "I gave the car to her" which is "Yo la di el coche." If I didn't want to use the indirect object pronoun could I do "Yo di el coche a ella" instead? And does this work for most/all scenarios if you didn't want to use lo / la? I have also seen instances where it's combined such as "yo la di el coche a ella."
Hello there,
is the indirect object "le" in follwing sentence necessary?
Le di el libro a mi hermana.
I'll appreciate the help. Thanks
INDIRECT OBJECT PRONOUNS
Indirect object pronouns include the idea of "to" direction toward a person. Mene is the indirect object pronoun of men, according to the vowel harmony system. It is simply the personal pronoun "men" with the last vowel "e" duplicated: mene. This is a common theme in Altaik. Thus, us = mizi, him/her/it = olo, them = olara, You = sene, you all = sizi. Understanding this vowel duplication means less memorization.
Sene bir bitig okim. = I read a book to you.
Olara bitigi okiz. = We read the book to them.
Erkixi sizi bir bitig okiol. = The man reads you all a book.
Erkixi means "man". This is an interesting word found in various forms Sakha or Yakut language. "Er" is a basic word in Mongolian, in Buryat, in Sakha, in Turkish, in Kyrgyz, in Altaí, in Kalmyk, in Tuvan, in Kumyk and probably other languages. In Altaik I chose it as a general masculine prefix.
"Kixi" simply means "person". It is found in özbek, in sakha, in turkish, in kumyk, in uighur, in kyrgyz, and probably other languages.
"Bitig" means "book" in Mongolian and Old Turkish. I opted not to use the more popular Arabic word "Kitab".
Can someone please help. I really don't unterstand the difference between Direct vs Indirect object and how to identify them in a sentence. I have been really struggling with this for months now. Today i thought i had it today but i really don't. Im hoping to take a German exam soon but need to nail this really.
Hi - I have a hunch that these two are not grammatically equivalent, but I'm not really sure why; hoping someone can clarify. Ty!
- Noi ti scriviamo spesso
- Noi scriverti spesso
Hello! I’m currently learning Spanish and have been reading some basic novels.
I thought I had direct and indirect object pronouns down pat but I am slightly confused here. In this book I’m reading there is the sentence “Ana, vamos al cine mañana?” le pregunta Claudio.
Now obviously I translate this as ‘Ana, shall we go to the movies tomorrow?’ Asks Claudio.
What confuses me as I was under the impression that in the ‘he asks her’ part of the sentence that ‘her’ is a direct object pronoun as she is being acted upon by the verb? And therefore the pronoun would be ‘la’ not ‘le’. If someone could explain this that would be great
I'm a bit confused on the difference in meaning (if any) between these two word orders (I'm using different verbs because I saw these both as example sentences):
-
他给我打电话
-
他拿给我一个杯子
Is it that with some verbs you must use one word order, and with others you must use the other? Or can you say something like "他打给我电话”. If so, how does the meaning change?
You read me right. I just found out I've been mixing a few pronouns up for the entire year plus that I've been learning. Never once has it hindered conversation. I have always addressed my Spanish speaking customers with "le puedo ayudar", I have (albeit consciously and catching myself), said "le conozco" in place of "lo/la conozco". There have been multiple times where I learned the correct one (or maybe the more common mistake, honestly I'm not even fully sure anymore) because someone repeated what I said somehow in their sentence differently than how I said it to them, with another pronoun.
I have made friends and acquaintances who don't even know English, despite the fact that I made these mistakes. These mistakes will not break your progress, I myself have never gotten confused because someone used one or the other (at least since I've become decent at speaking and understanding the spoken language).
You know why it doesn't really matter? Natives do it too. All the time. It's not just you. I've met people from Latin America who almost always say "lo dije" in place of "le dije", and nobody so much as raises a concern. Spaniards also overuse "le", and everybody still knows what the fuck is being said and what the fuck is going on.
My overarching point here is: I'm not saying don't learn them, you're kind of stuck having to do that one, but at the very least figure out the gist of them, BUT DON'T stop yourselves from using the language because you're not sure which pronoun to use and you weren't raised snorting powdered pages of grammar books your whole life, cuz neither were Spanish natives, or English natives. It's not like you'll use the wrong one and all of the sudden there's an impenetrable language barrier.
Hello! I was wondering if someone could explain to me the logic of why indirect objects can be doubled in a Spanish sentence in a simple way.
Ex. Yo le mando un regalo al niño.
Is it a thing to reinforce a sentiment or emphasize something? It (le) just seems redundant if you are already mentioning to whom (al niño) you are giving the present.
My first concern is that you are supposed to add the indirect object pronoun twice into a sentence if it is not clear who you are referring to. As you can imagine, for non-spanish speakers this is very strange. Likewise, my teacher has told me that if I don't add it into the beginning of the sentence, it will sound weird for native speakers.
> Ejemplo: Samuel le tiró la pelota a Juan.
In this case, Juan is the indirect object so (as an english speaker) it would appear to be unnecessary to add the "le" at the beginning of the sentence between the subject and conjugated verb.
There is also the case of omitting the indirect object for the pronoun (when it is clear who we are talking about). So, that would just look like:
> Samuel le tiró la pelota.
correct?
Beyond that, you could even use the direct object pronoun to make the sentence even simpler.
> Samuel le lo tiró.
BUT! If I understand correctly, when you have the direct and indirect object pronoun both starting with "ele" it doesn't sound nice so we change the indirect object pronoun "le" or "les" (depending on the context) into "se."
So, the correct sentence in this case would be:
> Samuel se lo tiró.
Is that all clear and correct? This has actually been a subject I thought I had some control over but it appears a bit harder than I imagined.
EDIT: as /u/pablodf76 mentioned the example direct object pronoun should actually be la because la pelota is a feminine noun.
Indirect object pronouns in Altaik are easy to remember. They are merely the pronouns with the last vowel duplicated. Men (I) becomes Mene (to me). No preposition is required to show direction. Miz (we) becomes Mizi (to us). Ol (he/she/it) becomes Olo (to him), Olar (they) becomes Olara (to them). Sen (you) becomes Sene (to you). Siz (you all) becomes Sizi (to you all). These pronouns were gleaned from various turkish languages in central asia and azerbaijan to find the more regularized ideas. Regular turkish from Turkey is slightly more irregular.
For me, the vowel duplication in Turkish adds the most variety of sounds while still having an easy grammar. It is also used on nouns to make accusative. I like it better than the repetition of Esperanto, which always has the same accusative -n and repeating -o sound.
For example: “Juan gusta este libro” instead of “A Juan le gusta este libro.”
Hi all,
I have a quick question about the below clause
'ubi nos linguis et Latinae et Graecae loquendis damus'
I have this as:
'Where we allow ourselves to speak in the Latin and Greek languages'
My quesion is, why not an infinitive here? I know the gerundive loquendis is in the plural dative here, and it links with Graecae and Latinae, but it doesn't seem like a gerundive of obligation. Is this instead a passive periphrastic?
I know loquendis cannot be a gerund since the endings do not fit the paradigm.
Any thoughts would be appreciated :)
Hi everyone! I’m starting to dive into the lovely topics of indirect & direct object pronouns.
Today I tried writing sentences to use both IO & DO and wrote “Ella te lo compró”. When I translated to check my work it gave me “Ella lo compró para ti”.
My question is when to use the IO vs using “para mi”, “para ti”, etc
TIA :)
So, there's the verb "gustar" which I don't quite understand:
-
Why is it possible to add "a mí" before "me gusta" to describe what I like ? what is the meaning of it ?
-
If the "le" goes as an third-person Indirect object pronoun, why should I write "A ella le gusta la manzana" ? shouldn't the "ella" cancel the pronoun and simple be written "a ella gusta" ?
I was talking to me friends, and wanted to say something like "I already sent it to her."
What I said to my friends was: "ya lo envié a ella". I thought I had tended to every word in the sentence, but my girlfriend, friends, and Spanish tutor noted that for some reason, "ya se lo envié a ella" or just "ya se lo envié" sounds better than what I had said. Nobody could explain why "se" and "a ella" are necessary.
My question is, why is "ya se lo envié a ella" grammatically correct? Why is it not redundant?
I already understand why it's “se” and not "le" (for phonetics). I also understand why it would be better to change from “ya se lo envié” -> “ya se lo envié a ella” (for clarification on who/what the se is referring to.
What I do not understand is why it is better to change from “ya lo envié a ella” -> “ya se lo envié a ella”. To me, the “se” appears like a useless addition.
Hey everyone,
I've been refreshing / relearning Spanish through Duolingo for the past 6 months and I keep coming across the app using direct and indirect objects before the verb clause. I believe I was originally taught that you always add them to the infinitives, but Duolingo is saying that it's acceptable to do either.
Example in case I'm not being clear:
Te lo voy a comprar.
vs
Voy a comprartelo.
Are both correct? Is one used more frequently than the other? Thanks in advance!
Is "te" the indirect object pronoun of this sentence? If so, why use the indirect object pronoun if the verb is already conjugated?
Sé cómo te sientes. -- I know how you feel.
Is "te" the indirect object pronoun? If so, why do I need "te" if the conjugated verb already indicates "tú"? Doesn't the sentence mean "I know how you feel" without "te"?
Is this a case where the conjugated verb is indicating the indirect object? I thought the conjugation always indicated the direct object (the who or what).
Thank you for any assistance, I am sure the answer is stupidly simple but this is very confusing to me.
EXAMPLES Marcos nos trajo la comida a nosotros. Marcos brought the food to us.
Marcos nos la trajo. Marcos brought it to us.
Mi madre está comprándome una pizza. My mom is buying me a pizza.
Mi madre está comprándomela. My mom is buying it for me.
Dame el control remoto. Give me the remote control.
Dámelo. Give it to me.
No quiero decirte la verdad. I don’t want to tell you the truth.
No quiero decírtela. I don’t want to tell it to you.
I got these from a Spanish learning website. Please tell me how to know when to put it at the end
I’ve been using the Living Language Spanish (advanced) course, which I highly recommend, and I’m a little bit confused with some of this object pronoun business.
They say “Object pronouns are often used together with the objects they are supposed to replace.
- Viviana lo quiere conocer a su poeta preferido.
Viviana wants to meet her favorite poet.
An indirect object is often combined with a redundant indirect object pronoun.
- Juan le va a comprar un libro a su ahijado.
Juan is going to buy his godchild a book.”
Which I have no trouble with, until the questions at the end of the chapter. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate pronoun:
- ¿____ diste el informe al jefe?
- Sí, ____ ____ dí.
I fully understand that the second line of the dialog should be “Sí, se lo dí”, but the answer key says the first line should be “¿Le diste el informe al jefe?” and I don’t get why they chose ‘Le’ as the pronoun. If we often have redundancies with both direct and indirect objects, why did they choose to have a redundancy with the indirect object rather than the direct object? To be clear, I’m not asking about the difference between le/lo or anything like that. I’m basically asking why they chose to say “The boss did you give the form to the boss?” Instead of “the form did you give the form to the boss?” if we were to translate literally.
Thanks in advance.
Can someone please help. I really don't unterstand the difference between Direct vs Indirect object and how to identify them in a sentence. I have been really struggling with this for months now. Today i thought i had it today but i really don't. Im hoping to take a German exam soon but need to nail this really.
Thanks in Advance.
