*native dialects

I am wondering if it occurs with "second" in order to make the terminal sound match that of "first."

I couldn't help but think about how German devoices terminal consonants that would normally be voiced in other positions, and I wonder if the AmE occasional devoicing of "second" might be a sign of a similar consonant shift underway in AmE.

ADDENDUM: After thinking further, I now recall that, after 9/11, when I started hearing constantly about the then-new Department of Homeland Security in the news, I heard it as "Homelance Security" until I had the chance to see it in print, which would be consistent with a general tendency to devoice terminal 'd' when it comes after 'n' in an unstressed syllable.

just checking before doing anything silly.

can i use two devices on a similar frequency without problems?

id like to know if its ok to use a 433 telemtry by px4 and an openlrs chip here:

i imagine it should be fine as openlrs uses a spread spectrum algorithm and telem uses a fixed frequency and if i make sure there not interfering it should be ok no?

the antennas will probally be atleast 15 cm from each other on the drone.

what do you think will it work?

Disclaimer: not a linguist.

I live in Germany and have learnt German. One of the things that I noticed that costs me a lot of “effort” is to voice word-initial <s> (/z/) after certain voiceless sounds eg. I find it ridiculously hard to say “vorsichtig sein” or “echt sein” (but not “knapp sein”) without an awkward pause in the middle, and if I try to voice it, I might altogether omit the final <g> or turn it into some “geminate /z/”.

I haven’t paid enough attention to how my peers speak (also, if I ask them, they’ll say of course they do the voicing). Is it just me being clumsy or is there maybe some well-know assimilation going on?

I know why I was devoiced now, but I do beg to ask the question why in detail. I was asking for clarification and quoted what happened before when I got devoiced. They told me I should have PM'd or been "polite" about the issue.

What is the difference, no other person than the moderator was offended, no one reported. I did not know the moderator was offended until this person just said "enjoy your devoice". So instead of telling us what is wrong or right they simply devoice with a simple reason without detailing what went wrong.

I believe there needs to be a little reform in the manner in which people are devoiced. Why not explain how not to do it in the future. It's obstructive, and I understand its to get rid of trolls. Instead of devoicing them from everything, why not just specific places and citing rules specifically. Perhaps as well adding a simplified rules list to pop-up on the General channel when you logon.

It makes me ask myself what is the point of the chat filter. How can this sort of thing be fixed?

I had been taught that the u falls off desu in speech, but apparently it doesn’t always, sometimes the end is pronounced, how come?

Hey everyone,

Here’s another great post from Dogen about the importance of devoicing.

All credits to him and his awesome channel.

https://youtu.be/iYQM7BhJJns

TLDR; Dad doesn't know that my mom will divorce him after their house sells. Do I tell him?

My parents have always had communication issues. This is a large reason why their marriage has been failing over the last 25 years. They have really only stuck together because they didn't want to have us kids go through something like that. Now with all the kids being adults, their reasons to stay together are limited. They have certainly tried, especially over the last few years, to make their marriage work. They've really just fallen out of love and have trust issues. Very ordinary relationship issue stuff.

However, my mom has not told my dad that she will be filing for divorce after the house sells. She is worried that my dad might "try something tricky" if she told him upfront. She thinks he is very vindictive. So essentially, she wants the house to sell and then move across country without him.

Their plan has been to move across the country after the sale to find a nice place to retire to after a few more years of work. My mom can work anywhere as she can work remotely. My dad, on the other hand, was recently let go due to COVID constraints, and has been looking for jobs in the area they want to move to. This is where the dilemma kicks in. There is no way he would move out there if it was just him. I'm worried about his future and that he's wasting his time applying for jobs somewhere that he wouldn't want to be unless he was there with my mom. If it were just him, he would stick around where he is because that is where his closest grandchild lives.

Do I tell him? My mom would almost certainly find out that it was me who told him. And I don't want to have a bad relationship with either of them.

What phonological process explains approximant (ɹ, l, w, j/) devoicing in English when preceded in the same syllable by a voiceless stop? Is the approximant assimilated to the preceding voiceless stop? If so why doesn't that same thing happen to a vowel following a voiceless stop; or put another way, what is special about approximants in this environment?

How common is this cross-linguistically?

Any help appreciated.

I was wondering if there was any apparent reason as to why final voiced consonants were often voiceless in most West Germanic languages but not in English, especially the letter d. Already we have accounts of "lant"being used in Old Dutch and Old High German, but "land" in Old English. Why is this the case? I am aware there we still have some instances in English (wolf, wolves, etc) but why is it so systematic for the others and less so in English?

Seems odd to me that there isn't an option to add prenasalized stops or voiceless nasals, even though they're part of the phoneme inventories of plently of natural languages.

https://youtu.be/JCxyxfG7qwc

Masako takes a trip from Nada station to Sannomiya station in Kobe. She shows you how to buy a ticket and navigate the station.

Best of luck in your studies in 2022!

So this may be a dumb question, forgive me! I'm new to phonetics. I learned recently that ð can be devoiced in certain environments. I was wondering why in those environments θ isn't used, because I thought the only difference between the two was voicing. How is this different from t switching to flapped t in narrow transcription, but ð doesn't switch to θ, instead a diacritic is used?

My i guess soon to be ex wife told me today that she wants a divorce. I thought with her going poly she would be better.... I was wrong. Just so wrong. Im heart broken.... I feel like running away, killing myself, disappearing and just cry... In that order. I dont know what to do anymore besides cry in bed all day.

Do your worst!

シツモンデー returning for another daily helping of simple questions and posts you have regarding Japanese that do not require an entire post submission ie normally removed under rule #6. These questions and comments can be anything you want as long as it abides by the overall subreddit comment rules. So ask or comment away. Even if you don't have any questions to ask or comments to offer, hang around and maybe you can answer someone else's question or perhaps learn something new!

Seven Day Archive of previous threads. Consider browsing the previous day or two for unanswered questions.

To answer your first question - シツモンデー (ShitsumonDay) is a play on the Japanese word for 'question' 質問 (しつもん - shitsumon), 'problem' 問題 (もんだい - mondai), and the English word Day. While originally for posting a weekly thread on Monday, now it's for every day of the week.

I (36M) have been with my wife (35F) for 15 years. I’m sorry in advance for the wall of rambling text and I’m not even sure where to post this much less how to start this or what I’m really expecting here. TLDR at the end.

I know what you might be first thinking, aww high school sweethearts. We meat right after high school being introduced by my best friend under an awkward situation. They were hooking up after meeting at a club during her “exploring phase” but after meeting me she told him she was more interested in me. I had no idea at the time why at the time, showing no interest in her and barely acknowledged her existence when hanging around my friend. After talking to my friend, he told me to just “cash in the V card and she will move on she is just having fun and moving on nothing serious anyways”. I’m not particularly comfortable with that and at the time having no real dating experience even just asking or rejections, I’m just hoping she gets the hint and moves on. She ends up dragging me out to the club (I HATE clubs) on a date including one of her friends. I give the minimal effort of binging in the club finding reasons to get away leaving the girls alone to dance. Half the night I’m out smoking or in line for drinks, in the bathroom ect. Long story short it didn’t work.

We started dating and we are the true definition of opposites attract. She is the loud open bubbly butterfly extrovert who talks to everyone. I’m the quite introvert who dreads social interaction with almost everyone. We have virtually no hobbies in common, closest thing is she likes to read and is a harry potter fan, I like lord of the rings and video games.

We made an odd couple, looking back I don’t understand why she liked me other then I complimented her personally because I didn’t talk much in social gatherings, so she had the spotlight as the couple. The reason I was happy was the one thing we had in common was a very high libido. She has a need to be constantly reassured of my love for her verbally. Due to me hating to speak to people she would occasionally cause fights and threaten to leave me just to get me to apologize and tell her I love her ect. (I know this should have been a red flag). She does this enough it has lost it shock factor to me and I just appease her and saying what she wants to hear to get past the fights even though she is withholding affection towards me while complaining I don’t “show “my love for her.

At about 5 years into the relationship,

It really does, I swear!

For context I'm a Refuse Driver (Garbage man) & today I was on food waste. After I'd tipped I was checking the wagon for any defects when I spotted a lone pea balanced on the lifts.

I said "hey look, an escaPEA"

No one near me but it didn't half make me laugh for a good hour or so!

Edit: I can't believe how much this has blown up. Thank you everyone I've had a blast reading through the replies 😂

I'm surprised it hasn't decade.

I'm just curious why and when did you got a permanent chat ban, and have you ever got your access back to the game chat?

They’re on standbi

Buenosdillas

Likewise, why is there a disproportionate amount of other clusters that are rarely used in other languages/branches besides Slavic (e.g. /ml, mr, sr, zr, zl, dl, dɲ, ʃk, tʃk/ etc.) ?

I've noticed how easy it is to create faux slavic-sounding words because of these specific phoneme combinations. I could create a fake word like /zdra.ɲa.va.ja/ and most people could recognize it as being of Slavic origin but something like /stra.na.fa.ja/ becomes more ambiguous after devoicing it. Is there any reason for this or is it just coincidental ?

Zieth (Zieth: Þe Zeeþ Spraake [θɛ zeːθ ˈspɹɑːkə] or just Zeeþ [zeːθ]) is a Germanic language spoken in Ziethland, a Oculo-AlloGeo country. I based Zieth on mainly Germanic languages such as Dutch, Afrikaans, West Frisian, and some English. Zieth is written with a modified Latin alphabet.

Consonants

• there is no Final-Obstruent-Devoicing, unlike many other Germanic languages

Vowels

Articles

DEFINITE

þe [θɛ] "the"

INDEFINITE

een [eːn] "one/a(n)"

Plural Nouns

Noun + (e)n

hond "dog" > honden "dogs"

Verbs

Verbs usually end in -n

Here is the verb eeten "to eat"

So that's the end! If you have any questions about Zieth, let me know! Bye!

Pilot on me!!

Is saying “I’ve to take a phone call” proper English, if I’ve is a contraction of I have, wouldn’t it make sense, and do people just not say it?