I was thinking about the double slit experiment, specially the variation with the measurement device observing the particle before it passes through the openings, wouldn't the the measuring device influence the particle's trajectory? The device must interact with the particle to receive information, right? The interaction could be simply an invisible field that the particle travels through or the device could be sending out some sort of beam of sorts to interact with the particle. Wouldn't this instant interaction still effect the particle and its trajectory? Lets say for instance that the measurement device is producing an invisible energy field between two points. The particle has to also interact with this field so the measuring device can detect it. This interaction in turn forces the particle into one trajectory a.k.a through one of the two slits, therefore the reason we don't get an interference pattern. This would prove that everything is a wave and as Einstein proved with light, come in "packets" that we label as particles.
Sorry if I sound dumb but does looking at a monitor doing any sort of computation with collapsing the particle wave duality?
Hi, Im aware that experiments have verified the wave like nature of atoms and molecules with double slit experiments. Im willing to accept that the wave function collapses (or perhaps the actual waves in quantum fields if you like Objective Collapse theory) A detail I dont understand is, how do you 'fire' a molecule through the slit? Is the molecule 'real' at the point of firing it, then becomes a wave, then becomes 'real' again when measured? i.e, popping into and out of existence pretty on repeat? Or does the experiment simply set up the 'conditions' for the creation of the molecule which initially exists as a wave, and once observed, it 'stays real' from that point on?
Im also a bit iffy on the term 'observation'. Does that mean 'interaction with anything'.?
thanks
I am highschool student who tries to learn quantum mechanics and I wonder why smaller wavelengths has more particle like properties?
*Not a scientist/smart person
What if the mystery of wave particle duality is due the electromagnetic wave's frequency?
A while ago I learned about the double slit experiment where electromagnetic waves were shot through two slits in a wall, but made a wave interference pattern on the other side of the slits, allowing scientists know that electromagnetic waves exist in both states simultaneously.
Just recently I was curious about Hz and the frequency of light, and was wondering how something going the speed of light (speed at which time ultimately doesn't exist) has a measurement based in time (still wrapping my head around that one).
I did some research and realized that light changes states really fucking fast. Way faster than anything else I've ever conceptualized. The color red, which is on the lower end of the spectrum changes states at 400 million million cycles per second.
When I imagine something changing so fast, it doesn't surprise me at all to think it could phase and exist as two things at once.
My understanding is that all particles are covered under wave particle duality, with even large molecules passing the double slit experiment. So if regular particles, atoms, and even molecules are waves, does their observed wavelength change when moving toward or away and if so, what would we expect from that?
So as someone who only has a bachelor in industrial engineering, I dared to disagree with the double-slit experiment, it just bothered me the way people concluded that the act of observing the experiment, changes the result of it; the way people concluded those result meant our consciousness matters to particles without consciousness, this would basically be the same as superstition for me (in science tho) so not being stubborn enough to delve into the math I just assumed it is the way they "observe" that makes the result different which basically meant it is a "bad" experiment but I wouldn't be able to prove it since I'm not a scientist.
However, there is a video on youtube sciencey enough that basically confirms what I thought and also claims that quantum particles are always waves (or act as a wave) and never ... well particles.
I want to know if this is true and if so are there still any debates between scientists since I don't want my bias to decide for me.
The video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Q2OlsMblugo
Article: https://www.sikhnet.com/news/theory-everything-and-concepts-science-described-sri-guru-granth-sahib
Keep in mind that this site has raised nearly 400 000 dollars
Why do religious people do this? Literally just lying and making things up out of thin air just to make it seem like their religion has all the answers when they clearly are just a product of ignorance and superstition. So the SikhNet article has two parts on this specific topic: first they provide a very long scientific explanation about wave particle duality and then they talk about how their gurus knew about this before the scientists did. Wow! and they also conflate the meaning of this theory to the existence and nature of God. What they’re essentially saying is that since their Gurus taught that the nature of God can be considered dualistic; that means they knew that waves and particles are dualistic as well!!!!11!
So the first part of the article is very long and filled with scientific jargon so I will only include a small snippet of it
“Wave-Particle duality postulates that all particles in the universe exhibit properties of both wave and particle. This is a fundamental concept of quantum mechanics. Standard interpretations of quantum mechanics explain this paradox as a fundamental property of the Universe, while alternative interpretations explain the duality as an emergent, second-order consequence of various limitations of the observer.
Then it talks about how their gurus knew and affirmed this incredibly ground breaking theory through their teachings about the nature of God, and they literally use fake quotes that they just made up and said that their gurus said it hundreds of years before scientists figured it out So the article continues by saying
“Sri Guru Granth Sahib, the Supreme Sikh scripture had already held the theory of wave-particle duality in 15th and 16th century and recorded in the hymns of Guru Nanak, Guru Amardass, Guru Ramdass and Guru Arjan. The development of this theory in science and the theory already explained in Sri Guru Granth Sahib are discussed here.
The scientists were able to have vague idea of wave-particle duality in 17the century but were able to experiment in 20th century. Guru Arjan however described in 16th century that all the particles are in the wave forms.70 Referring to the creation of the universe, he said: "Whatever is subtle in waves is also solid in particles."71 In fact the Gurus described the entire God (and H
... keep reading on reddit ➡Disclaimer: Totally not a physicist. I know basic calculus and got Bs in undergrad organic chemistry, so I'm assuming that I can't completely grasp this. Still, hopefully someone can help me understand the concept.
Sean has said during many different podcasts that for the particle/wave duality issue, "wave" is the correct answer. He seems to resent the way in which people are allowed to go on thinking of the world in terms of "particles".
I'm just surprised at how secure he is about it. He doesn't seem to acknowlege the "particle" part at all if I understand correctly - almost as if the term is nothing more than a type of historical misnomer.
Looking around, it seems that most physicists don't dismiss "particle-ness" quite as readily. They instead often say that these objects are just in a class of their own - a wave with particle properties that we can't really imagine because there's no classical equivalent in our everyday experience to compare them to.
So why is he so adamant about the exculsivity of the "wave"? Because of the probabalistic nature of the wave function? Or is it because Many Worlds denies the collapse? What's the story here?
If it is a specific feature of Many Worlds, shouldn't he be less insistent about the issue? Many Worlds is a minority interpretation among physicists - so is it really fair to dismiss duality?
Any clarification would be very much appreciated. I'd really like to understand.
Example: we have confirmed gravitational waves but not yet gravitons. Could it be assumed that a graviton exists based off the existence of a wave alone? Could a double slit experiment be set up using gravity?
Disclaimer- I am self teaching myself so please be gentle!
In quantum mechanics, every particle and quantum entity can be expressed as a particle or a wave. If this is the case, could one theoretically find the wavelength of a particle that makes up matter and place it on or compare it to the electromagnetic spectrum? Would matter be comparable to light and vice versa, considering that light can be expressed as a particle or a wave as well? If so, would this have any merit?
Also, I don’t really understand how electrical and magnetic waves can travel without a medium to transfer its energy along. Is it just a particle moving in a wave itself, rather than applying a force, like in a sound wave?
I was thinking about the double slit experiment, specially the variation with the measurement device observing the particle before it passes through the openings, wouldn't the the measuring device influence the particle's trajectory? The device must interact with the particle to receive information, right? The interaction could be simply an invisible field that the particle travels through or the device could be sending out some sort of beam of sorts to interact with the particle. Wouldn't this instant interaction still effect the particle and its trajectory? Lets say for instance that the measurement device is producing an invisible energy field between two points. The particle has to also interact with this field so the measuring device can detect it. This interaction in turn forces the particle into one trajectory a.k.a through one of the two slits, therefore the reason we don't get an interference pattern. This would prove that everything is a wave and as Einstein proved with light, come in "packets" that we label as particles.
