I know that we don't know if this is real yet? I know that most people are still baffled by the results. I'm just wondering if this means we could maybe interact more robustly with the quantum foam?
In the problem below, why does the second method used to calculate magnetic dipole moment ΞΌ essentially use the definition of the electric dipole moment p? Is magnetic dipole moment the same as electric dipole moment? Can this method always be used? If yes, what is the need to differentiate between the two?
I have this question which says:
use just the relevant natural constants, to estimate and compare the approximate interaction energies between magnetic dipole moments of energetically low-lying hydrogen states as well as for electric dipole moments of electronic transitions. From this show that electric dipole interaction is the dominant process in optically driven transitions.
We've been given that the impedance is E/H =mu_0 c =377Ohms and that B = mu_0 H
Im very confused as to what the question even wants me to do. Any help is greatly appreciated.
Magnetic Dipoles create a torque to align with the external magnetic field (we'll assume a uniform field). Obviously the torque is dependent on some magnetic force. But magnetic force is dependent on velocity, and we haven't defined a velocity. So where is this force coming from?
Dear all,
So as most of you will know, electrons can differ in one characteristic: their spin. Some have "spin up", some others "spin down". Furthermore, an electron's spin can analogously be described by a magnetic dipole moment, which has a specific direction in three-dimensional space. And in the case of a surrounding (homogeneous, say) magnetic field, said dipole moment can point in two different directions (along the field lines or opposite to them), both associated with their own energy levels.
Now, is said dipole moment equivalent to the electron's spin property? This is what I mean: Imagine an electron in a magnetic field, its "spin" pointing along the field lines. Were I now to forcefully invert its spin's direction by 180 degrees such that it is now pointing in the opposite direction, would I have changed the electron's spin property from "spin up" to "spin down" (or vice-versa)? My best guess is: No, because if this were the case, this would mean that in the absence of any electromagnetic fields, an electron could come in an infinite number of spin-states, each state corresponding to one specific direction of its magnetic dipole moment in space.
Therefore, I always thought of the spin property as something more fundamental, like color is a fundamental property of quarks, without having anything to do with actual colors.
HOWEVER I know that electrons can, indeed, change their spin states. This occurs in phosphorescence (I think), to name just one of many examples of spin-reversal. If, however spin-reversal (from spin-up to spin-down) is possible and is not mere change of the direction of the electron's dipole, what exactly is spin-reversal? Quarks, for example, cannot change their color (I think). And neutrinos change by neutrino oscillation, so how is the change from one spin-state to another described?
I really hope that I was able to make my problem as clear as possible. Any help is appreciated!
Thanks!
The electrons in the Sun would also be balanced. Maybe they're to blame for the magnetic field. What causes the Suns magnetic field!?
Been looking at this for hours and still can't wrap my head around it.
Thanks!
I've seen a ton of different information about this - can somebody fact-check me and let me know if I have this right?
Carbonyl compounds exhibit greater bond polarity and thus a greater dipole moment than alcohols.
However, in solution, alcohols are considered more polar because of their hydrogen bonding capability.
Thanks in advance!
https://preview.redd.it/mpdjyuhmk1281.png?width=293&format=png&auto=webp&s=2270997b3ac2aae4b8e1568fa6905219e3c13481
I found one of a magnetic dipole, but how can I get one of multiple dipoles?
Hi, I'm self-studying Kibble's Classical Mechanics and am pulling my hair out on the below question. I posted it on stackexchange and haven't had any luck yet. If anyone could point me in the right direction, I'd be grateful!
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/566889/charge-moving-in-field-of-magnetic-dipole
