Does anyone know what was the latest publishing on this? Iβve found small sample-size studies addressing the importance (or unimportance, in a specific instance) of side chains in determining cross reactivity, I also caught the delabeling brief published by IDSA in 2016... anything newer that you are aware of?
Any guidance would be super super helpful! Thanks!
Doesn't have to be a mnemonic any help to learn the classification will be appreciated.
What is the advantage or reasoning behind the use of Ceftriaxone over a 2nd gen cephalosporin in the setting of acute Gonorrhea? The literature indicates Ceftriaxone but I feel something like cefaclor can also be used. Is it a cost issue or something having to do with patient compliance?
Iβve read a lot in regards to what antibiotics are more likely to cause c.diff and from my understanding it is mainly clindamycin and 2nd + 3rd generation cephalosporins.. I believe keflex is a 1st gen. Meaning it has less of a risk, Iβve taken a lot of antibiotics in my life unfortunately due to an auto immune disease - I am more likely get infections. I also have IBS and that never helps, Iβm taking all the probiotics I can and drinking plenty of fluids I just want to know if I am correct about keflex being one of the less likely cephalosporins to cause c. Diff My dosage is 500mg 2x daily for 5 days. Thanks
Hope this helps: Google Drive Link - Cephalosporins (Step 1 notes)
Questions: rahul@hyguru.com
https://preview.redd.it/1v1rs0dvsma51.png?width=2202&format=png&auto=webp&s=b63703c721c8f3c6d6f36cc5ab6f2d5aeea2de51
I have a childhood allergy to penicillin and I reacted with hives to cefdinir two years ago, so I am likely allergic to cephalosporins as well. Does anyone have experience going through medical clearance with both? I have only seen people with a penicillin allergy making comments on Reddit and I would love to hear someone who was in a similar situations experience. I have no insurance and I have already spent over $1000 on medical clearance and I really can't afford to keep making doctor's appointments if I'm not even going to be cleared. Thanks in advance!!
Now this may be a dumb question, but I've had two micros from my lab give two different answers.
When I get a culture result that shows sensitivity to cefazolin, it tells me that sensitivity to cefazolin shows susceptibility to cefazolin, cefdinir, cefpodoxime, etc
When I get a culture result that is resistant to cefazolin, it does not say this.
If my culture shows resistance to cefazolin and sensitivity to ceftriaxone, the bug should be susceptible to cefdinir, right?
I'm figuring that ceftriaxone is the surrogate for other 3rd gens like cefdinir, but the wording I mentioned in my second paragraph makes it seem like cefazolin is the surrogate. Unless that wording is only speaking towards sensitivity and not resistance (which I am figuring it must).
Thanks smart dudes and dudettes.
Any help for learning the genarational classification will be appreciated.
