Haggai Puns

Early christians interpreted Haggai 2:7 “and the desire of all nations will come” as messianic. Modern scholars critique this interpretation because while the noun is singular, the verb is plural. Thus they say the noun should be understood as a collective word and propose its speaking about wealth.

The text in the LXX version has a plural noun with a singular verb. The noun in the masoretic is hemdat so the greek authors prolly pronounced it hamudot. The skeleton text can be pronounced this way. Could the singular verb in greek indicate their hebrew text’s verb was in the singular? In that case their hebrew would be plural noun + singular verb which makes sense for a messianic interpretation as words from the root for hamdat/hamudot are applied to individuals like daniel in the plural form.

So the question is if what ive mentioned above is plausible (that the hebrew the LXX authors had access to had a singular verb) and if then by reflecting upon the LXX version, can we say the messianic interpretation is plausible? Is having the singular verb with the plural noun common in greek or is it odd here?

The greek reads :

καὶ συσσείσω πάντα τὰ ἔθνη καὶ ἥξει τὰ ἐκλεκτὰ πάντων τῶν ἐθνῶν καὶ πλήσω τὸν οἶκον τοῦτον δόξης λέγει κύριος παντοκράτωρ

ἐμὸν τὸ ἀργύριον καὶ ἐμὸν τὸ χρυσίον λέγει κύριος παντοκράτωρ

My thoughts:

1. Yet more empty threats and empty promises.

2. So either God is demanding they use their already very limited resources to build a mostly useless building, and/or he is withholding any support from a faithfull people, just because he wants a pretty house. Neither makes him look good.

My thoughts:

1. "I struck you and all the products of your toil with blight and mildew and hail; yet you did not return to me, says the Lord." Which is odd, 'cause if you hurt people they usually really like you, right?

2. Hey look Satan again, doing nothing evil as usual.

Hello. Non-jew here. I want to start by saying I am posting to satisfy my curiosity and nothing else. I wish to gather knowledge. From my passage if I mention anything inaccurate, please correct me. It only helps me build my knowledge base.

I understand that Zachariah, Haggai and Malachi are the last prophets. What info do you have on their off springs? Does their bloodline end with them? When is Elijah supposed to return to announce the return of the messiah? Are the names of the last prophets the actual names, or do they have a different meaning?

Thanks in advance.

Upon googling the time period of Haggai and Zechariah, all the sources I found stated the Haggai was in the time of Darius I.
However in Ezra chapter 4 it says the decree set by Artaxerxes opposed the rebuilding of the temple until the second year of the reign of Darius (Doesn't state which one)
Looking at lineages, it leads me to believe that Haggai was in the time of Darius II because it would make sense for Artaxerxes to set the decree only for Darius II to allow the rebuilding temple after?

Would love to hear your thoughts. Thanks

I did a little write up the other day from Nahum, on God telling various groups, "I am against you." Truly these ought to be the most terrible words that one could ever hear. In contrast, we see the most wonderful words that we can ever hear, in this passage: "I am with you."

We truly live in a day of great spiritual corruption. Most of what calls itself "Christian" does not line up with the biblical definition of the term. Christianity has become a soulless, mutated mustard tree, where Satan's demonic birds lodge in the branches (as Jesus warned/promised). Many proclaim, "God is among us!" But, is He really? How can we know for sure?

These that proclaim the above words tend to use unbiblical guideposts, by which they make such judgments. Usually, they look to one or more of the following: numbers (attendance, professions of faith, baptisms, etc.), accumulation of wealth, emotionalism, and/or comfort/ease. Scripture tells us to trust in none of these things as a sign of God's blessing on our lives/ministries (read I Tim 6, for instance).

So, how can we know that God is with us? We need look no further than this passage:

1.) The Jewish people knew God's will. God's will is not some unknowable mystery. In fact, most of God's will for our lives is outlined clearly in Scripture. Sadly, most so-called believers ignore this. We have much doctrine, many promises, and various commands given to us in both the Old and New Testaments. Ephesians 5 especially well-outlines God's general will for every believer: follow Christ (according to His Word), live a holy life, and bear spiritual fruit, all while being filled with the Spirit. As we follow God's will for our lives, we understand that God's Word and will never conflict. Ever. Nonetheless, our feelings and circumstances sure can change. But, that does not change God's will.

God's will for His people, in Haggai, was that they rebuild the Temple (which would be known as Ezra's Temple). God gave Ezra the blueprints, and the people were to build. God's Word was clear: "Build." Everything was great for the people, as long as they prospered, and no adversity existed. But, as Satan so often does, when God's people do His will, persecution came. Because of the sudden opposition, the people conveniently believed that the work needed to stop. But, God had not changed His mind.

2.) The people were under God's chastisement. When God's people get out of line, He chastens them, to get them back to doing what is right (see

The NRSV translates it as:

>6 For thus says the Lord of hosts: Once again, in a little while, I will shake the heavens and the earth and the sea and the dry land; 7 and I will shake all the nations, so that the treasure of all nations shall come, and I will fill this house with splendor, says the Lord of hosts. 8 The silver is mine, and the gold is mine, says the Lord of hosts. 9 The latter splendor of this house shall be greater than the former, says the Lord of hosts; and in this place I will give prosperity, says the Lord of hosts.

Carol L. and Eric M. Meyers in their Anchor Yale Bible commentary translates it as:

>6 For thus spoke Yahweh of Hosts: “In only a moment I will shake the heavens and the earth and the sea and the dry land; 7 I will shake all the nations so that all the nations will arrive with riches and thus will I fill this House with glory,” spoke Yahweh of Hosts. 8 “The silver is mine and the gold is mine”—Oracle of Yahweh of Hosts. 9 “The glory of this latter House will be greater than that of the former,” spoke Yahweh of Hosts; “and in this place I will grant well-being”—Oracle of Yahweh of Hosts.

They suggest that "Glory" equates to God's presence:

>glory. Like “riches” mentioned above (cf. Note) in this verse, “glory” (kābôd) also lacks both preposition and pronominal suffix. But the Hebrew syntax provides no problem, and the word can easily be translated “with my glory.”
>
>“Glory” here directly signifies the resplendent presence of God and, in particular, his presence in the sanctuary. Haggai here and in verse 9 below, and Zech in 2:9 and 12 (RSV 2:5 and 8), share with Ezekiel (e.g., 1:28; 8:4; 9:3; 10:4, 18, 19; 11:22, 23; 43:2, 4, 5; 44:4) this designation of divine immanence.

Is this the correct way of reading "glory" or "splendor"? The splendor or glory seen just appears to be because of the riches and gold and silver the temple gets. What am I missing?