This is kind of a semi serious question because the answer is Kevin Feige hasn’t thought about it. But as just an exercise, we can try and examine this.
As far as I can tell, there is no marvel comics universe where the MCU model of time travel is used. From Age of Apocalypse to Avengers forever, I’ve not come across this notion of the past being unable to change the future in Marvel. So that means the MCU has explicitly different physics from the rest of the Marvel Universe.
And I believe anytime a universe has different physics from another universe, we have stepped into omniverse territory. We’ve even see this before. Miles Morales from the Ultimate universe is a parallel universe Spider-Man but what about Peter Porker, the Spider-ham? He’s from another universe but the physics around him are very distinct from Miles Morales and Peter Parker from the 616 universe. And even during the Incursion story that ended the Multiverse of Marvel, I don’t remember seeing Peter Porker’s world being destroyed. Implying his universe isn’t even in the Multiverse of 616 or The Ultimate universe.
Therefore I think the MCU fits the same type of universe as the Peter Porker universe, it’s physics are so distinct from the main Marvel Comics universes that it can’t be considered a parallel universe. It’s in the Omniverse of Marvel. It’s another multiverse different from the comics Multiverse.
I don’t know whether the MCU should then be considered a parallel universe to the comics. It’s more an alternate universe in the general Omniverse of Marvel.
I mean they basically just found out they’re not special and there are hundreds of versions of them throughout the multiverse and I feel like that could definitely fuck someone up mentally
I guess it's because his power had potential to become something much much more than just transforming inanimate objects into whatever he wants
DC Lucifer Morningstar
He has one goal: Kill every single thing in the the entire Marvel Comic continuity across all timelines.
How does he do?
Follow up question, wouldn't more than one multiverse technically be redundant, because one multiverse would contain all the same universes as each other? It would basically be 2 infinities, which is probably a thing, idk, I'm 17.
Follow-up question 2, when Doctor Strange viewed all those Timelines, was each timeline a different universe, or does each universe have multiple timelines?
Now what can I hecking do?
The Spook, definition from TV Tropes for mysterious characters.
Who are the characters who are known, but their backstory is a complete mystery to everyone else and it only makes them more scarier - they exist, but don't exist at the same time, paradoxically?
Superman's - and by extension, Kara Zor-El/Supergirl's origin story of being Kryptonians on Earth is one that's widely known as a backstory, but within the greater DC Universes, and also Marvel/MCU, who are those characters who are known about, but their lack of backstory makes it more chilling?
The Joker was the most obvious one, and first I could think of, but any others?
I'm trying to ask from the Watsonian perspective, not Doylist here, in a sort of way, if it's possible with regard to this.
As I understand it, a multi-multiverse is several multiverses together, although they mainly don't interact with one another except in limited circumstances.
Is DC Comics the only one who have these, and Marvel's multiverse very different?
In into the spiderverse the characters that come from other universes start decaying, however in the comics it doesn't ocurr? Can we believe this is the case
This “plot hole” can almost immediately be explained by the fact that they probably have no frame of reference for Reality numbers, same as the supposed “Earth-1610” and “Earth-616” from Into the Spider-Verse
They simply do not know about the classical Earth-616, and coincidentally name their own reality 616.
Also Beck is known to be a liar in pretty much any iteration.
This is just a headcanon you can use if you’re like me and like the idea of every Marvel media being apart of the Marvel multiverse.
PS. I stole this from DailyBugle10 on Twitter.
As far as I know, Earth-199999 (The MCU) has so far been included in the same multiverse as all the other marvel comic universes, from 616 to the ultimate universe and beyond. However, given the events of Dr Strange, it seems that the MCU lies outside the established multiverse because of one simple fact: Dr Strange can use the time gem in the dark dimension, outside his own universe. In the comic multiverse, different universes do have their own infinity stones, but they cannot be used outside their universe of origin. The fact that Strange can use the Time gem in the dark dimension to defeat Dormammu demonstrates that the infinity gems of the MCU obey different rules to those seen in any of the gems in the comic multiverse, thus placing the MCU outside the marvel comics multiverse and establishing its own multiverse with its own rules in the process.
As far as counter arguments to this idea go, I'm unaware if there are any examples of infinity stones being used in other universes and dimensions in the comics, but if there are then my theory is disproved. I'm all ears if anyone has any examples :)
i.e Captain America isnt always Steve Rogers, is there hero who has always been the same person.
Thanos with the IG(Infinity Gauntlet) goes up against Broly from Dragon Ball Super! Who would win and why?
Round 1: In Character
Round 2: Bloodlusted
https://i.ytimg.com/vi/3hAzCjLPCTU/maxresdefault.jpg
Both are listed with being extra-dimensional in power on VSBattles, so I am kinda interested to see how the Darkest Knight scales to other OP as fuck fictional characters.
Update: Both are at their peak.
No prep time either.
Would he be a challenge for the strongest of those universes?
Earth-199999
It's obviously part of the marvel multiverse.
I haven't' read the comics so I don't know how the multiverse works entirely. Is it possible that the MCU and the Marvel comics are part of the same multiverse.
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