Dravidian Languages Puns

I was doing research on South Indian languages for my linguistics elective class in college and I found out that Brahui language in Baluchistan province of Pakistan is similar to Dravidian languages in South Indian. Brahui folk songs sound like Telugu/Kannada folk songs. Tamil/Telugu/Malayalam/Kannada only share many words with Brahui language in Pakistan

So on the Wikipedia article about the Brahui language, it provides no suggestion to the how likely one theory is to another. Which theory do modern historians and linguists generally agree more on? Personally as of writing this post I think the recent medieval migration would be more plausible. Mentions of non-Aryan peoples still in northern India is quite lacking in classical sources, which leads me to believe that the Dravidian languages were utterly wiped out in the north after the Aryan migration and only in the Medieval ages did small Dravidian tribes migrate north to eventually form the North Dravidian languages.

1. "Aryans" invaded & wiped out "Dravidians" in an extremely short time- already disproved via archeology & genetics.

2. Natives of western/northern India before arrival of "Indo-Aryans" spoke neither Dravidian nor Munda languages but completely different language family which is now extinct.

3. "Indo-Aryan" was the native language of western/northern India.

https://a-genetics.blogspot.com/2021/11/west-east-divide-IA.html

Some other related links:

Harappa/"Aryan" Migration debate: Proto-Indo-European was agricultural. But no evidence of agriculture on the steppe; Sintashta or Yamnaya culture were both non-agrarian. Indo-Iranians have PIE agricultural vocabulary often lacking in European IE. How is PIE home in Steppes?

https://np.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/qn4tfa/harappaaryan_migration_debate_protoindoeuropean/

Wheels, Languages and Bullshit (Or How Not To Do Linguistic Archaeology)- Paper criticially breaks apart the models claiming Proto-Indo-European languages split only after invention of wheel or that they even originated in Steppes.

https://np.reddit.com/r/BharatasyaItihaas/comments/qpkfcz/wheels_languages_and_bullshit_or_how_not_to_do/

So I'm an amateur linguist and language creator. I've been wondering if there are any reliable academic sources on the words and origins of the proto-Dravidian languages that preceded modern-day Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, and Malayalam (along with smaller languages such as Kurukh, Gondi, Brahui, Tulu, and Malto).

Can somebody explain?????

Like, why add dragon lang and alien lang, but not other USEFUL languages???

The list below is a list of Taluks, Districts and States where a non Dravidian/Indo-European Language is official for either the population or historical reasons

Note:English is an official language nationwide along with tamil

1. Mausilapattinam

Languages: Telugu,Portuguese, Dutch

2. Yanam

Languages: Telugu, French

3.Pulicat

Languages: Tamil, Dutch

4.Pondicherry

Languages: Tamil, French

5.Tranqebar

Languages:Tamil, Danish

6. Nagapattinam

Languages: Tamil, Dutch, Portuguese

7. Cochin

Languages: Malayalam, Dutch, Portuguese, Hebrew, Judeo-Malayalam

8.Calicut

Languages: Malayalam, Dutch, Portuguese

9. Mahé

Languages: Malayalam, French

10. Cannanore

Languages: Malayalam, Dutch, Portuguese

11. Poliz

Languages: Greek, Serbo-croation, Polish, Estonian, Latvian,Lithuanian, Malayalam

12.Nicobar Islands

Languages: Tamil, Telugu, Bengalli, Danish

13. Eelam

Languages: Tamil, Dutch, English, Portugueses

14. West Telengana

Languages: Telugu, Urdu

15.East Telengana

Languages: Telugu, Urdu

16. Hyderabad

Languages: Telugu, Urdu

17. Maratha AR

Languages: Marathi

18. Orrisa AR

Languages: Oriya

19. Madurai

Languages: Tamil, Sourashtran

20. Sowcarpet

Languages: Tamil, Gujarati, Marwari

21. Kutch AR

Languages: Kutchi

22. Volga Colony Languages: Russian, Tamil

According to this person, the Tamil language doesn't exist. I think that I spotted the snake with the unhinged lower-jaw who thinks that everything comes from Sandskrit.

In Tamil, when a word ending with -m takes a case its ending -m is replaced with the semantically vacuous morpheme -the before the suffixing of the case. e.g. maram 'tree' + kku (dative case) > mara-tt-ukku

I would like to know if people from your country know the closest relatives of the language they speak. Do they know about the large macro families and their relationships? Can they easily to speak other members of the family?

Also, Austroasiatic, Kra-Dai, Koreanic, and Japaonic families.

How similar/easily understandable are the dravidian languages to each other? Like if some tamil person were to hear Kannada (for the first time in their life) how much would they understand?

• DOI/PMID/ISBN: 9781315722580

• URL

First published: 2019.

This is the best tl;dr I could make, original reduced by 60%. (I'm a bot)

> A recent publication has provided crucial evidence that Ancestral Dravidian languages were possibly spoken by a significant population in the Indus Valley civilisation.

> This study seeks to resolve a crucial part of this perennial puzzle of South Asian prehistory, through establishing the certain existence of ancestral Dravidian language(s) in the Indus Valley civilisation.

> Thus, the only feasible starting point is to find certain proto-words whose likely origin in Indus Valley civilisation gets confirmed through historical and linguistic evidence, whereas archaeological evidence indicates that the objects signified by those proto-words were prevalently produced and used in the Indian Valley civilisation.

> The paper points out that elephant-ivory was one of the luxury goods coveted in the Near East, and archaeological, and zoological evidence confirms that Indus Valley was the sole supplier of ancient Near East's ivory in the middle-third to early-second millennium BC. Some of this Indus ivory came directly from Meluhha to Mesopotamia, whereas some of it got imported there through Indus Valley's thriving trade with Persian Gulf, and even via Bactria.

> The researcher puts an important disclaimer, saying that it would be very wrong to assume that only a single language or language-group was spoken across the one-million square kilometre area of Indus Valley civilisation.

> "Even today, people across the greater Indus Valley speak several tongues including Indo-Aryan, Dardic, Iranian, along with the isolated Dravidian language Brahui and the language isolate Burushaski. During the Indus Valley civilisation era, this region could have been even more multilingual, with some languages that are now extinct. But we can at least be sure that ancestral Dravidian was one of the most popular tongues spoken by our ancestors," she added.

Summary Source | FAQ | [Feedback](http://www.reddit.com/message/compose?to=%23autotldr "PM

Many languages in the south are very similar to other northern ones and also have a lot of Sanskrit words in them. I'd say the only major difference is the writing script, but even that uses mostly the same system of writing but only substitutes the letters for different looking ones. There are more similarities between Hindi and Kannada than there are similarities between Hindi and English. however, in every diagram that shows the spread of language, it shows Dravidian languages as being separate from the other Indo-European languages. Why is this?

Has There Been Any Reconstructive Techniques Applied Or Inferences Made To The Proto-Dravidian Language Or Proto-Dravidian People Like What Has Been Done To The Proto-Indo-Europeans?

We know so much about the PIE people, their culture, and how they evolved. Has the same been applied to the Dravidian people?

My roommate believes that his language, Kannada, came from Sanskrit, and he may believe that Tamil didn't come from Sanskrit even though he said that they sound alike.

When my roommate (Kannadiga), myself (Tamil) and a 3rd guy (a white guy who's knowledgeable about India) were talking about India's history, linguistics, etc., my roommate agreed that Tamil and Kannadiga were quite similar. However he said:

• that "most languages of India came from Sanskrit, including Kannada."
• He hasn't had the time to read the different "conspiracies" advocating the origins and spreads of the different language families within South Asia.

My roommate isn't the only South Indian that I've met who believes that (1) there is no Dravidian family of languages, and (2) all languages in India came from Sanskrit.

I've had a Malayalee professor who raised her voice and got emotional when she said that "Malayalam came from Sanskrit since it has many Sanskrit words." I told her that, just like English, different languages can borrow words from other languages. English isn't an Indian language even though it has incorporated words like "Juggernaut," "pepper," "ginger," and "thug."

I'm assuming that it's only a South Indian phenomena to want to believe that their language came from Sanskrit, and it's especially a South Indian Brahmin phenomenon. Are there people of North Indian heritage who believe that the Dravidian Language Family also came from Sanskrit?

1. "Aryans" invaded & wiped out "Dravidians" in an extremely short time- already disproved via archeology & genetics.

2. Natives of western/northern India before arrival of "Indo-Aryans" spoke neither Dravidian nor Munda languages but completely different language family which is now extinct.

3. "Indo-Aryan" was the native language of western/northern India.

https://a-genetics.blogspot.com/2021/11/west-east-divide-IA.html

Some other related links:

Harappa/"Aryan" Migration debate: Proto-Indo-European was agricultural. But no evidence of agriculture on the steppe; Sintashta or Yamnaya culture were both non-agrarian. Indo-Iranians have PIE agricultural vocabulary often lacking in European IE. How is PIE home in Steppes?

https://np.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/qn4tfa/harappaaryan_migration_debate_protoindoeuropean/

Wheels, Languages and Bullshit (Or How Not To Do Linguistic Archaeology)- Paper criticially breaks apart the models claiming Proto-Indo-European languages split only after invention of wheel or that they even originated in Steppes.

https://np.reddit.com/r/BharatasyaItihaas/comments/qpkfcz/wheels_languages_and_bullshit_or_how_not_to_do/

Many languages in the south are very similar to other northern ones and also have a lot of Sanskrit words in them. I'd say the only major difference is the writing script, but even that uses mostly the same system of writing but only substitutes the letters for different looking ones. There are more similarities between Hindi and Malayalam than there are similarities between Hindi and English. however, in every diagram that shows the spread of language, it shows Dravidian languages as being separate from the other Indo-European languages. Why is this?