Just admit youβre jealous or jump off a bridge.
Sincerely, The Jewish people.
The Greek letter Ξ corresponds to and is descended from the Semitic letter Teth (Hebrew βΧ and Arabic Ψ·). Why is this letter never used in transcription of Teth and instead a T with a dot is used?
I am asking because the letter Q is used when representing and transcribing the Semitic letter Qoph (Hebrew Χ§ and Arabic Ω). So why isnβt the same done with Teth?
Meanwhile for the Semitic letter Samekh (Hebrew Χ‘ and maybe Arabic Ψ³) you can use Ξ which is the Greek descendant/equivalent to Samekh. But since itβs just the [s] sound, I can understand why Ξ isnβt used. Itβd be nice to use it though.
[Not representing the Semitic letter Tsade (Hebrew Χ¦ and Arabic Ψ΅) with an equivalent letter is more acceptable I believe since there is no Tsade equivalent in neither Latin nor modern Greek. Though theoretically you could use Cyrillic Ρ or Ρ or even the archaic Greek letters San ΝΆ or Sampi Ο .]
I heard about it at the Stasi museum in Leipzig. Basically, the plan was to try and spark some sort of conflict in the West, relying on neo-Nazi ideals.
What confuses me is that, according to the museum (I THINK; it was in German and I can't read it well), the MfS added their own fake West German postmarks to the letters before they were distributed. Why was this done, instead of just... Having somebody in the West send the letters normally? How would they have been snuck into the mail stream? Is there anywhere I can get more information about this?
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