For example, in C major, G resolves to C because it contains the leading tone B, but so does Em, and Em does not resolve to C as strongly.
If the resolution is due to the leading tone resolving to the tonic, why does this only apply with the V chord?
when people say 7-1 is satisfying, do they mean based on the key or chord? like for example if the chord is Cmaj, but it’s the key of Fmaj, does that mean 7-1 references E-F or B-C?
What are the rules pertaining to the movement of tones on the 6th and 7th degrees of the minor scale, in particular in Bach's music? I don't always see raised tones going up and unraised tones going down.
I understand that in the case of diminished chords, it lessens the dissonance of the tritone. But in the supertonic, would the root position be much better since it would be a bass movement of a fifth in a 2-5-1 cadence? (like D, G, C)
title. Must be some psychoacoustical fenomenon that explains why do that happens, why some frequencies make us feeling like we need to hear other frequencies? It’s all really learned?
At least when playing the piano.
Does the leading tone need to be resolved up any time it’s an active tone throughout the progression? What if the tonic is not a chord tone? What if The leading tone is playing during the beginning of the V7 chord rather than at the end?
Title. For the life of me I can’t think of any, but they must exist, right? It happens in some melodies so why not bass lines? Just as further discussion, feel free to submit any examples of bass lines starting on unusual chord tones. Have I hit the character limit?
How long does one have to resolve the leading tone 7th chord in a particular voice? For example can an outer voice use the leading tone, and before resolution occurs in that same voice, another voice enters? In outer voice F# then middle voice comes in, then outer voice resolved to G?
Can you have both a natural minor and harmonic minor in the same scale? For example in the key of A minor...
- A C E
- G B D
- F A C
- E G# B
Would the leading tone (G#) only be played in the 4th chord? Would you only use that not when it’s leading up to 1?
so I had this "functional" question in my head for week or so now, I did try to google etc. on my own before I asked here. (I also have a question about the terms modal and modulation, I think they have multiple meanings. if I should use them wrong, please point that out.)
{skip this if you want, I started rambling.)
"Modal" I'm talking about writing in modes. the melody is in a mode, and as far as I know so are the chord changes. Now I admit my understanding of functional harmony is not solid steel. My understanding of music theory in general pretty much stems from the A minor scale. The first scale I learned after A minor pentatonic. At one point I kinda stopped learning theory and learned how to play guitar using that scale pattern and just moving it around. I knew "starting on C" (in general) was major, but for the most part , I riffed out and practiced in Minor up and down the neck. However, I did use the G# and the Eb sometimes and occasionally the Bb. which I guess led me to learning the modes.
When I started composing, (3 minute songs) (and I don't remember at what point I somewhat learned what i thought was functional harmony), I didn't know that minor and the modes supposedly didn't have functional harmony.
In a way, in the beginning, I think you could sum up "my functional harmony" as I or i to any chord that would eventually get you to a cadence , at that time V v IV iv VII and sometimes ii. (now my cadences (or what i think are cadences) also include sometimes involving a Isus, bII7, bIIM7, bIII7, bIIIsus4 with M7,III7sus, ivm6, bVdim (really any diminished chord depending), V7sus4, (or variations on the V,( f, b , g#, d#) or even (g#, d , f , Bb ) maybe not a V variations???, VIsus, I'm lacking with augmented but I'll use the G#, E by itself, palm muted to A5. not sure if that counts as augmented. Edit (These are going to I or i, or looping back)(I should have included that especially since some work better going to minor than major)
but even today, I might only be able to guess if a chord is really subdominant or tonic, I just know it sounds okay or if it works. So when I started exploring modes, ( I didn't know functional harmony apparently didn't apply.) but I did kinda know that functional harmony wasn't as important in the 3 minute song, but it was in the back of my head, when composing harmony.
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So, sorry for all that , I'm really just looking for someone to elaborate on the term functional harmony. I
... keep reading on reddit ➡I know you're not supposed to double the leading tone, does that apply if the root of the chord is the leading tone? For example in the key of c major, if I have a diminished triad of b, d, and f, should I not double the root like I normally would? Should I double the third instead?
Why do I often hear a leading tone in songs, but rarely diminished chords (or see them on chord charts)? The leading tone is such a useful tool, I would have thought the associated diminished chord would be just as useful in bringing a chord progression back to the tonic?
edit: after 9 hours I have finally noticed that I left 'help' out of the title. Nevertheless, I asked you to 'please me', and I have been pleased, thank you.
Just intonated ratio to the Leading Tone is 15/8 which is 3/2 * 5/4, does it then heavily imply a major chord on the tonic? And is that why it is important?
Hello all! Sorry if this sounds homeworkish, I'm just a wayward computer science student I promise!
So I've always read to never double tendency tones, and the reason I've gleamed for this is that since tendency tones "want" to resolve in a particular way in 18th century music, you'll end up with parallel octaves (unless you spring your leading tone if its in an inner voice). But I'm also familiar with passing V6 chords, which take the leading tone in the bass down by step instead of up.
I've known of these for years at this point, but somehow I've never connected them before. In traditional part writing then, can you double the leading tone in such a situation, but have one go up to tonic while the bass moves down? Or would that still be unconventional to 18th century ears?
Thanks!
Hi!
I've been playing guitar for some 7 years now, but I'm not a 'tone master' so to speak. As such, I was wondering if anyone has any advice as to how to get a guitar tone similar to that in Dear Ms. Leading's incredible solo.
I would sincerely appreciate any advice – be it the specific gear used to record this solo/song, general effects and equalizer tips or even which band member recorded it for the Act II Album.
Thanks :-)
P.S.
I have the solo tabs if anyone wants them. I would have uploaded them to Ultimate Guitar but I rather uploading full songs than specific sections so I'm waiting until I tab the entire thing.
I was just learning the formulas for modes and there are a lot of overlaps with scales, for example Aeolian being the same as minor and Dorian being the same as melodic minor. So I wondered how you distinguish the two and Google says that then modes lack a leading tone. What does this actually mean? I guess my other question still holds too - how would I distinguish the (seemingly) similar scales?
That is all.
I want to bring something up that I think I have been misinformed about. Leading tones.
In high school, when I started learning walking bass lines, I was told to play a 7th interval, 2nd interval, or 5th interval of the next chord to "lead into" the next chord. For Example:
If I was to go from C7-G7, I would play an F (7th interval of G), A (2nd interval of G), or D (5th interval of G) right before I played the G on the downbeat of the G7 chord.
I was told these were referred to as "leading tones". Tonight, 15 years removed from HS, I realized a "leading tone" is a semi-tone below a pitch. So a leading tone to G would actually be F# because it's a semi tone flatter than G.
What would I call said example with the 2nd, 7th, and 5th intervals leading into the next chord? I have used this method to write bass lines outside of jazz and I think it's a great tool particularly for bassist learning how to write bass lines to keep chord changes cohesive and fluid. Thanks in advance!
From what I've read for writing 4-part harmony, the leading tone should not be doubled. But if I want to have a descending baseline (in pop music), well the point is to descend obviously, and it's suddenly acceptable to double to leading tone now? Or is it not?
Does the leading tone always resolve up to the tonic? Even if you are modulating keys?
