(I am aware that evolution doesn't work by always taking the "better" option, and that said options are only beneficial in a specific circumstance, but considering we have these two large groups then surely there must be some benefit to having the gram positive cell wall, otherwise they would be outcompeted)
23F 145lbs No smoking/drinking/drug use White Medications: daily prenatal (not currently pregnant but always prepared) History: none diagnosed Question: should I go to work (in healthcare) with “many negative rods”
-7 months of unidentifiable skin lesions (from neck down, 1000s) have since resolved 2 years ago -frequent UTI symptoms, negative urine dips (don’t think I’ve ever been cultured but maybe?) -Infrequent pleurisy (1-2 times a year, for past 2 years) I doubt anything above is related, by doc and I are thinking anxiety most likely.
I just recently went in for my yearly physical and my first Pap smear. Physical went good, nothing to report. This is a newer doctor, so while we were doing the pap he thought it would be a good idea to grab a few other things so we can try and figure out my uti like symptoms since I have 4 other negative UTI tests from my previous office (we moved to a new home, so I wanted a closer office). We did STD swabs, vaginal culture swab, the Pap smear swab, and I think that was it. There was some mild signs of a yeast infection, so he gave me diflucan just in case. STD’s just came back negative. Vaginal Culture came back this morning as such: Few white blood cells Few squamous epithelial Many gram negative rods Moderate yeast (yay diflucan) Few gram positive cocci Few gram positive rods No gram negative diplococci
No clue cells or mobilicuncus seen on gram stain, smear not consistent with bacterial vaginosis.
From what I understand (I am a med tech, but still newer) negative rods indicate a possible highly resistant bacteria. I work with a PA/NP treating people at home that are at high risk going to the hospital (urgent care). Will it be safe for me to see patients today? My doc office is closed so I can’t get ahold of him. Do I tell my work?
So I suffered from a longstanding mycoplasma infection which I thought I finally cleared (tested negative 4x, of which the latest was 8 weeks post antibiotics). However, at the hospital they have also done a culture and microscopy analysis of my urine.
Culture came back negative for microorganisms but microscopy (1000x magnification on oil immersion) showed gram negative bacteria score of 1-5 (I'm not sure what the reference value is). So this suggests I still have some sort of bacteria (that can't be cultured) but given the fact that i.had 4 consecutive negative PCRs I highly doubt it's mgen....
What's your take on this guys???
EDIT: I spoke lengthy with my doctor and she said there was nothing to worry about. The observed bacteria were non pathogenic and not growing. She said my symptoms have to be due to residual symptoms.
I've been suffering from deliberating digestive issues for a couple of years, since a food poisoning incident in Cambodia. My current hypothesis is, that some Klebsiella species is causing my problems (a large population of Klebsiella has been confirmed by testing). I'm currently on a carnivore diet in a desperate attempt to "starve" Klebsiella. I feel fine while on this diet, but assume that I might relapse as soon as I add something else to my intake. I thinking about having a glass of whiskey with some friends tomorrow, but don't want to fuck things up, so I'm wondering if high percentage alcohol may feed Klebsiella, or if I can treat myself to it? :) Thanks
I was reading about gram-negative bacteria and one (helicobacter pylori) was mentioned to be treated with amoxicillin.
I learnt that penicillin isnt effective against gram-negative bacteria because of the outer membrane, and amoxicillin being a beta-lactam would have to get through the outer membrane as well to have any effect, right?
So why can penicillin not get through the OM but amoxicillin can?
Journal of the American Chemical SocietyDOI: 10.1021/jacs.0c11113
Vadim Baidin, Tristan W. Owens, Michael B. Lazarus, and Daniel Kahne
Edit: Memorising the properties, e.g. novobiocin resistant, optochin sensitive, etc.
In other words, are gram negatives and gram positives two separate evolutionary groups? If so, was their common ancestor negative or positive? If not, does this mean that the peptidoglycan / lipopolysaccharide capsules evolved multiple times independently? I can't seem to find a clear answer for this.
The glycosylated cationic β‐peptide PAS8‐b‐PDM12 sensitizes the drug‐resistant ESKAPE Gram‐negative bacteria to multiple antibiotics by facilitating penetration through the outer membrane, and by deactivating efflux pump systems, opening an avenue for novel combination therapies for life‐threatening bacterial infections.
Carbapenem‐resistant Gram‐negative bacteria (GNB) are heading the list of pathogens for which antibiotics are the most critically needed. Many antibiotics are either unable to penetrate the outer‐membrane or are excluded by efflux mechanisms. Here, we report a cationic block β‐peptide (PAS8‐b‐PDM12) that reverses intrinsic antibiotic resistance in GNB by two distinct mechanisms of action. PAS8‐b‐PDM12 does not only compromise the integrity of the bacterial outer‐membrane, it also deactivates efflux pump systems by dissipating the transmembrane electrochemical potential. As a result, PAS8‐b‐PDM12 sensitizes carbapenem‐ and colistin‐resistant GNB to multiple antibiotics in vitro and in vivo. The β‐peptide allows the perfect alternation of cationic versus hydrophobic side chains, representing a significant improvement over previous antimicrobial α‐peptides sensitizing agents. Together, our results indicate that it is technically possible for a single adjuvant to reverse innate antibiotic resistance in all pathogenic GNB of the ESKAPE group, including those resistant to last resort antibiotics.