I am reading 'Royals & Rebels' by Priya Atwal about the rise and fall of the Sikh Empire, specifically a section about the rise of monarchies in the 19th century (e.g. Greece/Belgium/Bulgaria/unified Italy).
Atwal mentions that in 1815 Brazil was created as a kingdom ruled over by the Portuguese royal family, and then also that Mexico made this request upon defeating the Spanish in 1822. She offers no additional context though, and I'm curious as to what the reasons were. Can anyone help?
As we watched Sagasta let Arttecha to hide inside the ventilation tunnels for deactivating the explosives around the building and he told Palermo that she was dead with Gandia and others , as well Sagasta ordered 2 surgeons as a hidden soliders from Tamayo to control the bank and force the gang for surrendering ! Because for Palermo and his team they were controlling the bank very well for 5 continued days , how didn't they notice that the dead bodies are 5 not 6 like Sagasta informed him !!
For my opinion the script wasn't written like this by Alex Pina and his team ! It was written that the professor will come to Tamayo in the Tent for Negotiating ! Then he will enter the bank and will act a fake gun fight in order to fake thier death all , but the Spanish media authorities has changed the script and they didn't accept that the army will look as a weak in the whole series , because no government in the world will accept that it's army cant control a heist and appear as a weak army even if its a fictional TV show !!
And as we all know that this show script is approved by the Spanish authorities , as well the military equipment which have been used in the series have been given to Netflix as a producer by the Spanish military forces
I was told a story about a spanish army that routed itself when it fired the first volley and the sound scared all the Spanish soldiers. Is this true or made up?
The harquebus is a well known symbol of the Tercios and the Conquistadors, but also characters like Captain Alatriste are depicted as swashbucklers. We even have the famous "Gonzalo, get the pike" meme. How were blades and gunpowder combined in the Renaissance battlefield? Were guns kept for their symbolic value? Were they useful in some specific situations? Was gunpowder too expensive to be used in excess? Thank you for your answers.
During the 30 Year's War, the Spanish/Imperialists did reasonable well against the French & Swedish. Neither side really won but the Spanish/Imperialist forces did reasonably well enough to where it couldn't be considered an outright defeat.
Fast forward to the Dutch Wars of the 1670s, the War of the Reunions, & the Nine Year's War where the Spanish get absolutely bulldozed by the French in almost every engagement where it's purely Spanish armies (not including the engagements where it's the Coalition of Dutch/Imperial/Spanish forces vs French) vs French ones. The French were even able to temporarily sustain an invasion of Catalonia during the Nine Year's War.
It couldn't have just been the fact that Charles II was king because he didn't personally command Spanish forces during any of these wars.
