A list of puns related to "Voiceless dental and alveolar plosives"
Although the voiceless alveolar plosive can still be found between vowels in many English dialects, the way that the "t" in "whatever" is pronounced in most of Canada and the United States is that of the voiced alveolar flap.
Is it known when the plosive switched to a flap in these positions and at what point it became more common that using plosives in the United States and Canada?
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BilabialLabiodentalDentalAlveolarPostalveolarRetroflexPalatal Velar UvularPharyngealGlottalPlosivepbtdʈɖcɟkɡqɢ ʔ NasalmɱnɳɲŋɴTrillʙrʀTap or FlapⱱɾɽFricativeɸβfvθðszʃʒʂʐçʝxɣχʁħʕhɦLateral fricativeɬɮApproximantʋɹɻjɰLateral approximantlɭʎʟ
Where symbols appear in pairs, the one to the right represents a voiced consonant. Shaded areas denote articulations judged impossible.
ClicksVoiced implosivesEjectivesʘBilabialɓBilabialʼExamples:ǀDentalɗDental/alveolarpʼBilabalǃ(Post)alveolarʄPalataltʼDental/alveolarǂPalatoalveolarɠVelarkʼVelarǁAlveolar lateralʛUvularsʼAlveolar fricative
📷FrontCentralBackCloseClose-midOpen-midOpeniyɨʉɯuɪʏʊeøɘɵɤoəɛœɜɞʌɔæɐaɶɑɒ
Where symbols appear in pairs, the one to the right represents a rounded vowel.
ʍVoiceless labial-velar fricativeɕʑAlveolo-palatal fricativeswVoiced labial-velar approximantɺAlveolar lateral flapɥVoiced labial-palatal approximantɧSimultaneous ʃ and xʜVoiceless epiglottal fricativek͡p t͜s
◌͡◌ ◌͜◌
Affricates and double articulations can be represented by two symbols joined by a tie bar if necessary.
ʢVoiced epiglottal fricativeʡEpiglottal plosive
ˈPrimary stressˌSecondary stressˌfoʊnəˈtɪʃənːLongeːˑHalf-longeˑ◌̆Extra shortĕ|Minor (foot) group‖Major (intonation) group.Syllable breakɹi.ækt‿Linking (absence of a break)
Diacritics may be placed above a symbol with a descender, e.g. ŋ̊
◌̥Voicelessn̥d̥◌̤Breathy voicedb̤a̤◌̪Dentalt̪d̪◌̬Voiceds̬t̬◌̰Creaky voicedb̰a̰◌̺Apicalt̺d̺ʰAspiratedtʰdʰ◌̼Linguolabialt̼d̼◌̻Laminalt̻d̻◌̹More roundedɔ̹ʷLabalizedtʷdʷ◌̃Nasalizedẽ◌̜Less roundedɔ̜ʲPalatalizedtʲdʲⁿNasal releasedⁿ◌̟Advancedu̟ˠVelarizedtˠdˠˡLateral releasedˡ◌̠Retractede̠ˤPharyngealizedtˤdˤ◌̚No audible released̚◌̈Centralizedë◌̴Velarized or pharyngealizedɫ◌̽Mid-centralizede̽◌̝Raisede̝(ɹ̝ = voiced alveolar fricative)◌̩Syllabicn̩◌̞Lowerede̞(β̞ = voiced bilabial approximant)◌̯Non-syllabice̯◌̘Advanced Tongue Roote̘˞Rhoticityɚa˞◌̙Retracted Tongue Roote̙
LevelContoure̋or˥Extra highěor˩˥Risingé˦Highê˥˩Fallingē˧Mide᷄˦˥High risingè˨Lowe᷅˩˨Low risingȅ˩Extra lowe᷈˧˦˧Rising-falling↓Downstep↗Global rise↑Upstep↘Global fall
I know that in RP the letter <r> is usually an approximant, but I've read that after /θ/ it can be pronounced as /ɾ/ instead of /r/, so the word <three> would be /θɾiː/ instead of /θriː/. I was wondering how common that is.
Except for languages with retroflex or dental <d>s (which are completely different consonants than what I'm talking about) or geminated consonants, I can't imagine how any language wouldn't have a flap for /d/ in most environments, like what other options are there?? I can't think of any besides the realization of /d/ as [ð] in Spanish, where /d/, /r/, and /ɾ/ are contrastive, but that can't be a common alternative as [ð] is a rare phone crosslinguistically.
What is the origin of q for the voiceless uvular plosive? Was it sooner used in the IPA or in the transcription of Arabic?
As the title says I'm searching for papers talking about this phenomenon, or at least a middle-step; I've found some articles about velarization of /l/ in albanian, catalan and spanish, but found nothing about the occlusion of /ɫ/.
Want to know more, if this is even a thing
edit: I want to say that this curiosity of mine is caused from my southern-italian town's dialect, which is a unicum in the linguistic continuum, turning almost all the /l/ in /g/. ex. the italian for bed, /lɛt:ɔ/, turns into /git:ə/ etc.
For as long as I can remember, when pronouncing alveolar plosives when they’re immediately followed by /ɹ/, for some reason it’s always turned into an alveolar/post-alveolar affricate for me. i.e. /t/ -> [t͡ʃ] / _ɹ and /d/ -> [d͡ʒ] / _ɹ. This happens in both word-initial and word-medial position, so “tree” becomes [t͡ʃɹi], “drew” becomes [d͡ʒɹu̟w], “atrophy” becomes [æt͡ʃɹəfi], and “Andrew” becomes [æ̃nd͡ʒɹu̟w]. When I hear other people say words like these, I hear them the same way that I pronounce them, though I can see how this could be a perceptual bias. However, when I took Intro to Linguistics, I got points taken off of homeworks for transcribing it that way. More recently, in my Phonetics and Phonology class, we were transcribing random words and one of my classmates expressed that he also pronounces it this way. No one else in the class did, though, and our professor seemed taken aback and it seemed like he didn’t believe us. I was wondering if this is a documented phenomenon, and if not if anyone has ever heard of this happening. If it’s relevant, I was born in Boston and lived there until I moved to Connecticut when I was 3.
I started a new language today, and I'm really invested in it. So far, all the plosives are tenuis; I wanna change that. I want some non-tenuis, but still voiceless plosives. There are a ton of options, like velarization or aspiration, but I need help deciding between them all.
I would appreciate your suggestions, and I'd love to know if you have any strange, experimental ideas for this sort of thing.
According to Wikipedia, the only language to have a phonemic labio-dental nasal is the Kukuya language, yet the same article states that there are doubts about even that. Since it would be inefficient to create an IPA symbol for every possible phoneme, diacritics are often used in combination with the symbols to describe a language's phonology more precisely. So my question is, if the labio-dental nasal gets its own unique symbol, why doesn't the dental stop < t̪ > , alveolar stop <t> get their own unique symbol when a phonemic contrast between them is far more common? (e.g. Dravidian languages)
I want to make a conlang that involves distinguishing dental and alveolar places of articulation. It’s easy to do with the fricatives - dental /θ ð/, alveolar /s z/. But stops are trickier, so I’m wondering if the alveolar affricates are a typical way in which alveolar stops are realized when a language possesses alveolar and dental stops as different phonemes.
also what is the norm for intermolar width in females?
I've been looking all over, but I can't seem to find one.
I was watching some videos on a youtube channel (link at the end of the post) with a speaker of Irish English and noticed that the "t" sounds at the end of his words, like "that" or "it" came out as "θ̱". It looks like it's not a phoneme that exists in Irish Gaelic, so I'm assuming it evolved on its own within Irish English. Is that a common sound change for voiceless alveolar stops?
The only other place I've noticed that phoneme (with my super limited experience) is as an allophone of "r̥" in Icelandic which is a relationship that makes more sense to me. Any insight or directions to look for the answer would be appreciated!
The above mentioned channel: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCtGoikgbxP4F3rgI9PldI9g/featured
Shameless linguistics noob askin' another question here, so be patient.
I'm sure there are much better examples of this, but I've noticed that in Danish, a lot of words with [t] get transformed into [d].
The prefix 'ud-' is is 'ut-' in Swedish: 'utbildning' versus 'uddanelse', 'uddale' versus 'uttal', etc.The word 'ut' by itself stays the same though. Adjectives like 'sød' are 'söt' in Swedish [and 'søt' in Norwegian, and the cognate 'sweet'], 'arbejder' <> 'arbeter', etc etc. You get the point.
Please correct me if I'm wrong [I've never even been close to Denmark before]. I could also make the guess based on my minimal research that [k] gets voiced into a [g]: based on words like 'og' <> 'och', or 'sprog' <> 'språk'.
The word 'supermarket' is written as 'supermarked'. I can't find any resources for English loanwords into the Danish language - probably because I'm searching in English and not Danish - but I'm wondering if this too happens to loanwords which are assimilated into a Danish imitation instead of being pronounced exactly like it is in English.
So is there a term for this voicing? Thanks!
Are there languages that have a phonemic contrast of these sounds? For example /d/ vs /d̪/
The reason I ask is because in (sf) bay area English i notice this contrast as dental fricatives are more often pronounced as dental stops and I was wondering if this is common in other languages. For example "then" [d̪ɛ̃n] and "den" [dɛ̃n] are minimal pairs
Title says it all, am I'm supposed to try and make the sound with my teeth, or alveolar ridge?
I'm not sure if this is the best place to post this but I'm trying to learn the difference between these two sounds. What are examples of dental trills being used? At least when I make the sound, it seems like it would be a difficult sound to put within words. So I'm wondering if I'm doing it wrong or if it's actually a lot more similar to an alveolar trill. I'm asking because I am able to do dental trills (at least I think) and I'd like to learn the difference in tongue placement to be able to make an alveolar trill (which I can't make). Thanks.
Hi! Can a case of unaspiration (e.g streɪndʒ) be also a case of devoicing, dentalization or post alveolar articulation?
First of all, thanks to u/Adam-P-D and u/Walking_in_Circle for their comments!
Today I tried to imitate their two versions (but maybe my two versions are not so different x)).
Anyway it was a very fun exercise!
Here the text:
>The voiceless dental non-sibilant fricative is a type of consonantal sound used in some spoken languages. It is familiar to English speakers as the 'th' in think.
For example, does any language distinguish /p/ vs /p^(h)/ vs /ph/ vs /p^(h)h/? Guaranteed aforementioned clusters occur within the same syllable, rather then broken up by syllable boundary, like /p.h/ or /p^(h).h/.
I'm going through the FSI Levantine Arabic Pronunciation course. Page 5 has a number of sounds that would normally be alveolar articulation in English, but are dental in Arabic. I find even when I consciously place my tongue on my teeth, it still wants to curl up to hit the alveolar ridge. Is this something I should be avoiding or is this how native Arabic speakers do it as well? Also, should my tongue be resting on the back surface of my teeth, or should the edge of my teeth be resting on the tip of my tongue?
For me I would choose to back to origins choices just felt that my warden was really me in that world.
TL;DR: This is a serious post as ESPN's The Undefeated highlights aspects of Kyrie Irving's stance in relation to (1) social justice and the damages of his anti-intellectualism, (2) cheerleading from dishonest actors such as Fox News and Donald Trump Jr, (3) false analogies to Muhammad Ali and Colin Kapernick, and (4) the fact that this is "a disease that kills more Black and brown people per capita" than anything else.
https://theundefeated.com/features/kyrie-irving-is-abandoning-the-voiceless/
October 15, 2021
Kyrie Irving has become the center of the NBA universe as his refusal to get a COVID-19 vaccine makes him ineligible to play home games or practice with his Brooklyn Nets team. The franchise responded by stating that it won’t allow Irving to participate in team activities until he’s vaccinated, and Irving finally broke his silence after weeks of speculation over his motives.
First, The Athletic wrote a story explaining how Irving believes he’s the “voice of the voiceless” for people forced to take the vaccine to keep their jobs. Then, he took to Instagram Live in a meandering, 20-minute speech: “It’s not about being anti-vax or about being on one side or the other. It’s about being true to what feels good for me.”
Irving’s Live did nothing to dispel the notion that he misunderstands who is actually voiceless and refuses to understand that criticism and fact-checking are vastly different consequences from persecution.
Much of Irving’s career has been defined by his off-the-court ideologies. Sometimes criticism of him has been valid, such as the ridicule he received for his comments questioning whether the Earth is flat, which he later apologized for. Other times, the criticism has been ill-informed, like those who mocked Irving for burning sage in Boston’s TD Garden arena before a Nets game, something he did as part of his Native American heritage.
But the pushback over his refusal to get a COVID-19 vaccination as hundreds of Americans are dying per day is warranted. Yes, Irving has control over his own body, but his decision, when it becomes a public health concern, is open to criticism.
“If I’m going to be demonized about having more questions and taking my time to make a decision with my life,” he said, “then that’s just what it is.” But Irving isn’t being demonized for his belief. He’s facing appropriate ramifications for perpetuating a public health crisis. This isn’t an example of someone punished for being a freethinker.
Muhammad Ali
... keep reading on reddit ➡should we do þis?
https://vocaroo.com/1hEkWRJ2dwIl
>The voiceless dental non-sibilant fricative is a type of consonantal sound used in some spoken languages. It is familiar to English speakers as the 'th' in think. Though rather rare as a phoneme in the world's inventory of languages, it is encountered in some of the most widespread and influential.
Thank you for listening!
Hello there!
I read the beginning of this Wikipedia article.
https://vocaroo.com/18PcXNyr8IjC
> The voiceless dental non-sibilant fricative is a type of consonantal sound used in some spoken languages. It is familiar to English speakers as the 'th' in think. Though rather rare as a phoneme in the world's inventory of languages, it is encountered in some of the most widespread and influential.
Thanks for listening and have a good day/night!
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