Vulgate Puns

Hopefully one with the translation under the lines. Also are there any books about Nicea I?

Does anyone know of a nice Clementine Vulgate currently in print? All I can find are bilingual editions and I just want the Latin. I don't want the Stuttgart Vulgate or the Nova Vulgata. I am told an easy way to spot the correct one is that Eve's name is spelt 'Heva' in the Clementine Vulgate, as opposed to 'Hava' or 'Eva'.

A companion to the previous thread, this tier list is found in the Vulgate Lancelot and is not expansive as the one from La Tavola Ritonda since it only concerns the knights whom are currently present and went on the quest for Lancelot. Still, it is interesting to see this much earlier look at it

Here it is

Per this list, without Lancelot or Kay, the order is:

Bors>Ector de Maris>Gawain>Gaheriet>Lionel>King Bagdemagus

The obvious implication of Lancelot not being present is that he would top the list if he was present, especially since he was the one to defeat Bors at the Forbidden Hill (though as to where Kay would go, who knows).

KJV: "I will lift up mine eyes unto the hills"

Vulgate: "Levavi oculos meos in montes"

Why does the Vulgate use the perfect tense when KJV uses the future tense? For comparison, the Hebrew version uses the future tense, but the LXX uses the aorist tense, so maybe that is related; in the case that Vulgate used LXX for reference, why did LXX use the aorist tense?

Hebrew: "אֶשָּׂא עֵינַי אֶל-הֶהָרִים" (future of נָשָׂא)

LXX: "ἦρα τοὺς ὀφθαλμούς μου εἰς τὰ ὄρη" (aorist of αἴρω)

Surely I'm not the only one who reads the vulgate bible to practice my latin skills? Ignoring religion it's a good book for learning latin because it's so long and has a lot of different words (and it can easily be compared to english translations since english bibles are everywhere). It also helps me understand why the bible's grammar is so weird. Not to mention it's just fun reading something in another language like latin.

I recently was involved in a kind of debate with someone on Reddit regarding the use of the word "fornication" in English translations of the Bible. Most of the uses of this word in the New Testament were translations of the Greek word porneia, which I argued never actually referred to premarital sex specifically. The meaning of the word porneia is a matter of controversy among scholars, but it appears to signify a general sense of sexual immorality, and, in a more specific sense, appears to be associated with prostitution and the idea of "selling oneself." However, the other person argued that the word did refer to premarital sex because when Saint Jerome translated the Hebrew Bible into Latin in the Latin Vulgate, he used the word fornicatio (as well as other variants such as fornicari, fornicationis, and fornicationem), which "obviously" referred to the modern sense of the word "fornication." And subsequently later English translations which were based on the Latin Vulgate carried the word over into the English word "fornication."

In response, I referred to the Online Etymology Dictionary website which said that the word fornicatio came from the word stem fornicari, which was based on the word fornix, which meant "arch" or "vault." The dictionary clarified that Roman prostitutes would frequently meet with customers under arches of buildings. Further, the website seems to say that the verb fornicari originally meant "to solicit a prostitute." It is my understanding that this is the original meaning of fornicari and its word variants, and is also the meaning that Jerome understood when he translated the Greek word porneia into Latin. Jerome lived in the 4th and 5th centuries AD, so I would argue that, at least within this time period, the Latin words fornicatio, fornicari, fornicationis, and fornicationem did not specifically refer to premarital sex.

However, I looked up these words in Google Translate and according to that website those words do in fact mean "fornication" in the modern English sense. It's my belief that the meaning of fornicatio in Latin, if it did in fact change to a meaning close to the modern English word "fornication," made this change only sometime after the time of Jerome in the 4th and 5th centuries, but I have no evidence to back this up.

So basically my question is what was the original significance of the words fornicatio, fornicari, fornicationis, and fornicationem at

Modern scholars believe the catholic epistles were not translated by Jerome, but were instead a revision of the previous Vetus Latina by some unknown party. Was the quality of the Vulgate's Latin considered poor in the time when people spoke it as a first language? Or did it only earn that reputation later, by people who felt that classical Latin was the 'purest' form and Late Latin was just inherently less beautiful?

I know a fair amount of Latin, but not enough to make any stylistic or aesthetic judgments about it.

Does anyone know if there are any vocab frequency lists for the Vulgate?

I did a search and found this article by Jimmy Akin where he basically said that he was not aware of any such list. But the article was from 2005, and I'm wondering if anyone may have made one at some time after that?

Somebody left a comment saying that a list can be found here: http://www.intratext.com/IXT/LAT0001/_FF1.HTM but this list appears to have been generated simply by splitting the Vulgate up into individual words and then sorting the words based on frequency (meaning, each inflected form has its own entry, which is not desirable).

I also found this: https://surfacelanguages.com/language/Latin/readinglatin/wordfrequencylistvulgate.html but this has the same problem (and it only gives the top 100 entries).

If there are no other options, I might use the second link and manually group the inflected forms together, but this will be a pain.

29. dixitque Deus ecce dedi vobis omnem herbam adferentem semen super terram et universa ligna quae habent in semet ipsis sementem generis sui ut sint vobis in escam

30. et cunctis animantibus terrae omnique volucri caeli et universis quae moventur in terra et in quibus est anima vivens ut habeant ad vescendum et factum est ita

I'm not sure how the sentence 30 works. Is it something like this? : (cunctis animantibus terrae est anima vivens ut habeant ad vescendum) + (omni volucri caeli est anima vivens ut habeat ad vescendum) + (universis quae moventur in terra est anima vivens ut habeant ad vescendum)

And I have another question. Can I say something like "Habeo ad discendum" to refer to that I have to study?

In the story, the False Guinevere plotted with Bertholai, a knight of Camelide, to convince Arthur that she was his real wife. The False Guinevere said in her letter that if the king would not take her back as his wife, Arthur would have to return the Round Table to her, since it was originally a wedding gift from her father, king Leodegrance.

In Vulgate Cycle, the Round Table is kept by King Leodegrance of Cameliard after Uther's death; Arthur inherits it when he marries Leodegrance's daughter Guinevere.

The ring that the False Guinevere had was identical to that of the Queen. Arthur set Boxing Day as the day to prove which was his real wife and which was the impostor. Twenty barons from Camelide were part of the conspiracy.

One day, Bertholai captured Arthur in the forest. They gave Arthur a love potion so that he would fall in love with the False Guinevere. Arthur declared his real wife as an impostor, and wanted to have her executed. Arthur with the barons of Camelide found Guinevere guilty of treason.

News arrived about Guinevere's imprisonment. Lancelot immediately set out to rescue the queen, accompanied by Galehaut and his army.

When the day arrived that Guinevere was to be executed, Lancelot challenged the barons of Camelide in the force of arms. Bertholai declared that Lancelot would have to fight the three strongest knights of Camelide, instead of one. Arthur ordered Lancelot to back down but Lancelot refused, then renounced his allegiance to Arthur and his seat at the Round Table.

Months later, the False Guinevere and Bertholai fell mysteriously ill, robbing them of their ability to move. They realized God was punishing them for the plot to remove the real queen. To save their souls, they repented of their sins and crime to Arthur's chaplain, Amustans, and also confessed to Arthur of their deception.

When news arrived of the conspirators' deaths, they also found that Arthur wished to take his wife back. At first Guinevere pretended that she would not return to Arthur since he was ready to execute her. Arthur had to reconcile with Guinevere, Lancelot and Galehaut. Arthur pleaded with Lancelot to retake his seat at the Round Table. Once Arthur and Guinevere reconciled, the queen gave a kiss to Lancelot in public for his service to her, and she declared Lancelot as her personal champion, which Arthur approved.

Does this exist, does anyone know of one?

- Current English, so no thee/thous
- Translated from the LXX or Vulgate (not the new Vulgate)
- Just a book of Psalms on it's own preferably, if it has some other Scripture attached that would be acceptable

I want it for prayer and memorizing. Thank you for any help!

Psalmus 129:4 quia apud te propitiatio est propter legem team sustinui te Domine

Douay Rheims For with thee there is merciful forgiveness: and by reason of the law, I have waited for thee, O Lord.

I am really confused here. Not at all sure how propitiatio somehow becomes merciful forgiveness, my best translation seems that it is more near atonement. Also, how does sustinui become waited? I have always seen it as suffered. Is this just poetic freedom or am I really off the mark? Thanks, A.M.D.G.

Assalamu Alaikum, everybody!

I have another question for you: What is your opinion on the Vulgate (Latin version of the Bible, translated by St Jerome (PBUH))? I study Latin and I also like certain traditions within Catholic Christianity, such as Gregorian chanting. Is it possible for me to read and even own a Vulgate? I don't know why, but reading Latin is really relaxing for me, and plus, I think it's pretty cool.

As a Muslim, I know that the Bible has many errors and has been corrupted due to translation and other stuff, but I even the Qur'an exalts the importance of the Torah, the Zabur and the Injil.

Any thoughts?

BarakAllahu feekum.

I have begun to reacquaint myself with my high school Latin study of fifty years ago and thought an approachable reading target would be the Vulgate Bible. I have started by using Wheelock and wonder if upon completion of this text I would have the grammatical skills to read the Vulgate (new vocabulary would simply have to be learned of course). Many thanks.

Cette affaire a fait l'objet d'un excellent film d'un réalisateur israêlien diffusé deux fois sur ARTE. L'ANGRIFF ,journal de Goebbels, a d'ailleurs publié une dizaine d'article à la gloire des Kibboutz de Palestine et Mussolini a organisé une grande exposition à Rome à ce sujet.

Le groupe STERN (extrême droite sioniste) a lancé un appel à l' Allemagne en 1942 pour une aide dans sa campagne terroriste contre les Anglais ,mandataire à l'époque en Palestine

I have heard that St. Jerome (ora pro nobis) preferred grammatical formations of Hebrew and Greek over proper Latin. Any examples?

I'm attempting to translate the psalms in the Vulgate bible into English and I've got a bit confused with Psalm 3. The Latin reads: 'Ego dormivi et soporatus sum exsurrexi quia...'

I translate this: 'I slept and having been lulled to sleep I rose because...'

Is this correct? I'm confused because common translations give something quite different.

Jonny

Does anyone know of a nice Clementine Vulgate currently in print? All I can find are bilingual editions and I just want the Latin. I don't want the Stuttgart Vulgate or the Nova Vulgata. I am told an easy way to spot the correct one is that Eve's name is spelt 'Heva' in the Clementine Vulgate, as opposed to 'Hava' or 'Eva'.

Is there an original vulgate with translation pdf somewhere? Or one without?

I recently was involved in a kind of debate with someone on Reddit regarding the use of the word "fornication" in English translations of the Bible. Most of the uses of this word in the New Testament were translations of the Greek word porneia, which I argued never actually referred to premarital sex specifically. The meaning of the word porneia is a matter of controversy among scholars, but it appears to signify a general sense of sexual immorality, and, in a more specific sense, appears to be associated with prostitution and the idea of "selling oneself." However, the other person argued that the word did refer to premarital sex because when Saint Jerome translated the Hebrew Bible into Latin in the Latin Vulgate, he used the word fornicatio (as well as other variants such as fornicari, fornicationis, and fornicationem), which "obviously" referred to the modern sense of the word "fornication." And subsequently later English translations which were based on the Latin Vulgate carried the word over into the English word "fornication."

In response, I referred to the Online Etymology Dictionary website which said that the word fornicatio came from the word stem fornicari, which was based on the word fornix, which meant "arch" or "vault." The dictionary clarified that Roman prostitutes would frequently meet with customers under arches of buildings. Further, the website seems to say that the verb fornicari originally meant "to solicit a prostitute." It is my understanding that this is the original meaning of fornicari and its word variants, and is also the meaning that Jerome understood when he translated the Greek word porneia into Latin. Jerome lived in the 4th and 5th centuries AD, so I would argue that, at least within this time period, the Latin words fornicatio, fornicari, fornicationis, and fornicationem did not specifically refer to premarital sex.

However, I looked up these words in Google Translate and according to that website those words do in fact mean "fornication" in the modern English sense. It's my belief that the meaning of fornicatio in Latin, if it did in fact change to a meaning close to the modern English word "fornication," made this change only sometime after the time of Jerome in the 4th and 5th centuries, but I have no evidence to back this up.

So basically my question is what was the original significance of the words fornicatio, fornicari, fornicationis, and fornicationem at the time th

Assalamu Alaikum, everybody!

I have another question for you: What is your opinion on the Vulgate (Latin version of the Bible, translated by St Jerome (PBUH))? I study Latin and I also like certain traditions within Catholic Christianity, such as Gregorian chanting. Is it possible for me to read and even own a Vulgate? I don't know why, but reading Latin is really relaxing for me, and plus, I think it's pretty cool.

As a Muslim, I know that the Bible has many errors and has been corrupted due to translation and other stuff, but I even the Qur'an exalts the importance of the Torah, the Zabur and the Injil.

Any thoughts?

BarakAllahu feekum.

I have begun to reacquaint myself with my high school Latin study of fifty years ago and thought an approachable reading target would be the Vulgate Bible. I have started by using Wheelock and wonder if upon completion of this text I would have the grammatical skills to read the Vulgate (new vocabulary would simply have to be learned of course).