Byzantine text type Puns

A bit of background: the Byzantine Text-form, or Byzantine Majority Text, simply refers to the congruent text overlapping the majority of Byzantine era manuscripts of the new testament. This is in opposition to the more Protestant backed Alexandrian Text-type, (which uses a handful of supposedly more authentic manuscripts to derive the Greek new testament used as the basis for most modern Protestant bibles); and the Textus Receptus, the text originally compilled by Erasmus (and then by Stephanus, Elzevir, and others) in which a small but increasing number of greek manuscripts of various ages, compositions, and origins were used to derive the premier Greek text for early Protestantism until the late 1800's (this is the text from which the King James Version was derived).

This post will focus on Hort's arguments against the Byzantine Textform (and for the Alexandrian), and Pierpont & Robinson's rebuttals in favor of the Byzantine text.

Hort's Arguments against the Byzantine Textform

1. Argument from Geneology - Hort believed that all manuscripts of a particular text-type (Byzantine, Alexandrian, Western, Caesarean, etc) necessarily descended from an individual "archetype" or parental ancestor, and that only this archetype was relevant to textual criticism.

2. Lack of particular "Byzantine" elements in manuscripts before the Fourth Century ad - Hort himself said that this is the crux of his entire argument. He attested that particularly Byzantine elements of the NT (such as John 7:53-8:11, the "Paricope Adulterae") simply weren't found in manuscripts from before the 4th century.

3. Argument of Conflation - the idea that Byzantine manuscripts were guilty of conflation (the combining of two or more preceding documents), whereas older Alexandrian manuscripts (such as the Codex Sinaiticus & Codex Vaticanus) were not.

4. Theory of an Authorized Revision - a theory by Hort that there was a systematic revision of the Greek text in or around the fourth century, from which most if not all Byzantine manuscripts were derived.

5. Argument for the Superiority of the Alexandrian Textform - mainly due to the older age of the Alexandrian manuscripts, Hort asserted that they were therefore superior to the other Text-types.

Pierpont & Robinson's Arguments for the Byzantine Text-type

1. In his works, Hort doesn't present an actual stemmatic (genealogical) archetype for the Byzantine Textform, nor is one believed to exist by modern scholarship.

2. There

PROOF

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All modern Catholic translations and most Protestant translations of the Bible use the critical text based on the much earlier (end of the 2nd century) Alexandrian manuscripts. Within Protestantism pretty much only the KJV and NKJV use the textus receptus based on the later (5th cent) Byzantine manuscripts. Adherence to KJV is primarily a fundamentalist phenomenon which argues against the consensus of biblical scholarship that the later Byzantine manuscripts are more accurate, or even that the textus receptus was inspired. I have little sympathy for this argument, but I saw that the Orthodox Church opts to use the same Byzantine text-type for their own translations, and I figured they would probably have a better, more historical reason for doing so. I looked into it but was unable to find the reason. Could anyone shed some light on this for me? Full disclosure: I am a former evangelical, leaning Anglican, with a preference for patristic theology and admiration for Orthodoxy.

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I'm looking for an English translation of the following three metered hymns to St. Sophia and her three daughters, taken from the Vespers service for September 17. Thanks so much!

Τῷ τῆς σοφίας φωτὶ καταυγασθεῖσαι, πανεύφημοι μάρτυρες τῶν ἀρετῶν ἡ τριάς, τὰ τῆς Σοφίας βλαστήματα καὶ τῶν παρθένων καὶ ἀθλοφόρων τὸ ἐγκαλλώπισμα· Τριάδος ὑπέρμαχοι ἐν ἡλικίᾳ σμικρῇ, παρανομοῦντα ᾐσχύνατε, καὶ παρρησίᾳ τὴν τούτου πλάνην ἐμυκτηρίσατε. Ὅθεν βασάνοις παρεδόθητε ἀλγειναῖς, ὦ σεμναὶ τρεῖς νεάνιδες, καὶ τὴν κάραν τμηθεῖσαι, θεῖον στέφος ἀνεδήσασθε.

Χριστὸν ἐξ ὅλης ποθήσασαι καρδίας, καὶ τούτου τῷ ἔρωτι τρωθεῖσαι πάνσεμνοι, τῶν γεηρῶν τὴν ἀπόλαυσιν, ὡς ἐπικαίρων καὶ φθειρομένων κατεφρονήσατε, πανένδοξοι Μάρτυρες, Ἀγάπη, Πίστις, Ἐλπίς, καὶ τὰς φρονίμους ζηλώσασαι πέντε παρθένους, χοροῖς τοῖς τούτων συνηριθμήθητε, καὶ σὺν Ἀγγέλοις συγχορεύετε, μαρτυρίου στεφάνοις, κοσμούμεναι καὶ Χριστὸν δυσωπεῖτε τοῦ σωθῆναι τὰς ψυχὰς ἡμῶν.

Ἐνδεδυμέναι Χριστοῦ τὴν πανοπλίαν, καλλίνικοι Μάρτυρες, Πίστις, Ἀγάπη, Ἐλπίς, τῶν ἀρετῶν αἱ φερώνυμοι ἐν τῷ σταδίῳ, ὡς ἄλλου πάσχοντος ἀνεκραύγαζον· Οὐ ξίφος, οὐ μάχαιρα, οὐκ ἐκκοπὴ τῶν μελῶν, οὔτε φλογῶν ἡ ἐπίτασις, ὑμᾶς χωρίσαι, θείας ἀγάπης, ὅλως ἰσχύουσιν· ὅθεν στεφάνους ἐκομίσαντο, τοὺς ἀφθάρτους, ἐκ σοῦ τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν, τοῦ παρέχοντος πᾶσι τοῖς πιστοῖς τὸ μέγα ἔλεος.

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Hello, I would like to buy a Greek new testament, preferably the original.

Should I buy the Textus Receptus or the Byzantine Text?

Also, which bible translation do greek orthodox use?

Also:

The P52 a fragment from a papyrus codex shows following verse at John 18:33

"πάλιν εις το πραιτωριον" this is the verse, the Nestle-Aland uses.

But if I look at the Textus Receptus and the authorized 1904 text it shows:

"εἰς τὸ πραιτώριον πάλιν"

Do you have an explanation why they use it instead of the original showed in P52? I've seen people taking this as an argument against the TR and the patriarch text.

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Customer Loyalty = IF(recipient_export_1018_19739[p_number_of_orders] > 4, "VIP Customer", IF(recipient_export_1018_19739[p_number_of_orders] = 4, "Loyal Customer", IF(recipient_export_1018_19739[p_number_of_orders] < 4 & recipient_export_1018_19739[p_number_of_orders] > 1, "Casual Customer", IF(recipient_export_1018_19739[p_number_of_orders] = 1, "One Time Customer", "Other"))))

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No cults/new religious movements. I research them a lot and have a list on those. I'm more interested in the reigning champs here.

How much of Byzantine books and learning was lost due to the sack of Constantinople in 1204 and the conquest of the city by the Turks? I read somewhere that most major works had survived and I was curious how that happened.

I've noticed some people are blazingly fast at text-typing and so I wanted to ask are there any particular type of "texting style" that produces the fast speed?

Do you use "auto-suggest" and does this make texting faster?

Do you use "swipe" texting where you run your finger across the keyboards and the word pops up?

Do you use two thumbs?

Do you use auto-complete?

So if you've any tips or techniques that can help with improving text-typing speed please then I'd appreciate your suggestions

Edit: Does the type of smart phone you've got makes a difference to the texting speed so would a high end flagship phone be able to text quicker than an entry level Samsung A12 for instance which costs £140/$175

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"Olaf Tryggvason and Vladimir the Great, St. Olaf of Norway and Yaroslav the Wise, Harald Hardrada and Yaroslav’s daughter Elisiv, Yaroslav’s another daughter Anne of Kyiv as regent and Queen of France, Olga of Kyiv and Byzantine Emperor Constantine VII. Art of shipbuilding and a version of the origin of Rus."

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