As the title says I got a positive test back after 15 years of crippling pain, losing my ability to walk, constant headaches and I don’t need to say anymore lol.
So I’m excited to get going with treatment. But my doctor wants me to take cyanocobalamine 1,000mcg for a month to see if it helps. So other words, just over the counter supplements, basic run of the mill. I have been supplementing with better b12 supplements for a decade and guess what? It didn’t help.
Is there any reason why he would do this that I am not seeing? He won’t return my messages until our next appointment next month. I just want treatment asap so I can get my life back lol.
Any insight would be great, not sure if I need to go see a different doctor or not.
Thanks!
Edit: clarification
If so, how would you do so?
Hi all, 30M UK here, hoping for some advice. I was recently diagnosed with low B12 (Serum vitamin B12 level 128 ng/L [144.0 - 915.0]) after me pushing for months with my GP to run blood tests after suffering with seasonal affective disorder/depression/anxiety/fatigue for 2+ years. I'm now on dose 4 of 6 of initial B12 loading doses (intramuscular injections).
I've just checked online and seen that my intrinsic factor levels have come back as 'normal' (no reading given) following a blood test 6 days ago - the dr previously advised the most likely cause was pernicious anaemia, but my understanding is this rules this out? I was actually feeling relieved that I had found the cause of my psychological/neurological issues as the treatment plan seemed easy to follow (regular b12 injections), but now feel like I'm back to square one. I'm not veggie/vegan and eat a balanced amount of meat/fish/eggs/leafy greens - I have an active & healthy lifestyle with moderate alcohol consumption. All the NHS Website seems to indicate is if its not pernicious anaemia, its coeliac disease or crohns - is this factually correct as I don't feel I match the symptoms for these conditions? Thanks.
Two months ago, all of a sudden, I began experiencing heart palpitations and hair loss. Later I became extremely fatigued and felt a tense sensation in my head. I had my blood checked and my results were:
B12: 121 ng/L
Folate: 3.6 ug/L
I was prescribed supplements and had further tests to check for intrinsic factor antibodies. My symptoms seemed to become worse for a while. The heart palpitations became very severe -- they used to wake me at night in huge gasps. Only recently have my symptoms seemed to subside. I still have occasional palpitations and my hair loss is the same, but I'm not as worn down and my head feels clearer. My intrinsic factor test came back negative and I had my blood checked again. The new results were:
B12: 456 ng/L
Folate: 20 ug/L
The doctor has told me to keep taking supplements for now, but I'm confused as to why this would happen. I eat a balanced diet with a lot of meat, so I was sure that it would be issues with absorbing B12. When my intrinsic factor test came back negative, I asked the doctor what would cause it to drop so low, but he didn't really have an answer. What else should I be looking out for?
A bit of other information: Since childhood, I have experienced stomach pains in the right side of my abdomen, just below my ribs. The pain is excruciating and usually lasts between 4 and 6 hours, usually always in the evening or at night. My stomach will feel very tender for a few days afterwards and the pain may even return in this time. These happen maybe once every two or three months. I also have a lot of stomach noise in general. Sometimes, for hours on end, it will squelch and gurgle like crazy. I've had several ultrasound scans, after the last two I was told my gallbladder was slightly inflamed. I was sent for a HIDA scan which came back normal. Every time I've gone to the doctor for my stomach issues, eventually I'm told there's no further action needed.
Does this perhaps indicate other issues with digestion? If not intrinsic factor antibodies or my diet, what else could be going on in there that would cause my B12 to be so low? The doctor isn't really giving me the answers, so I'm looking for some advice from anyone who has experienced anything similar.
The following is a slightly edited excerpt from the book Security Analysis. The passage was written in 1934 and it is amazing how valid it is today.
In security analysis, there are two general attitudes that go into determining the market price of securities. They are investment attitudes and speculative attitudes.
Speculative attitudes include the following:
Market factors:
- Technical factors
- Manipulative factors
- Psychological factors
Speculative and investment attitudes may share the following attitudes:
Future value factors:
- Management
- Competitive conditions
- Possible and probably changes in volume, price, and costs
Investment attitudes are distinct from speculative attitudes in that they asses objective intrinsic value factors:
Intrinsic value factors:
- Earnings
- Dividends
- Assets
- Capital and Debt Structure
- Terms of the issue
- Other metrics that are considered fact.
All of these factors together form the attitude of the public towards the issue - causing them to present bids and asks at the price they deem appropriate to exchanges that in turn forms the current market price. Of course there have been many new developments since this was written, but big banks scalping for a few cents per share on each trade doesn't change the facts above.
It seems like good practice to think about all of these before making a purchase or sale to form a final opinion on if the transaction is an investment or a speculation, and even to think about what the person on the opposite side of the transaction is thinking.
Also goes to show that if efficient market theory really does exist, then the value of equities may be extremely disjoint with what its financial intrinsic value is.
The purpose of this post is not to enrage or start an argument like how some people tend to interpret posts, but rather to create some discussion points and hopefully add to all of our knowledge base or at least make you take a second and think about it.
I’ve been told I have low B12 (180) and will need to have six injections over the next two weeks and then one every 12 weeks after that.
I’ve already had my first dose, but the nurse wants me to get a blood test to check for Intrinsic Factors, even though I’ll have already had two doses by then. However I’ve heard you can’t get an accurate result if you’re having the injections. Obviously the nurse knows best, but I just wanted to check whether this sounds right to you?
Hi everyone!
I've recently started B12 injections at age 20 and I am trying to understand some lab results... I was tested for pernicious anemia through testing for the intrinsic factor antibody.
My result was 2.15 u/ml. Is this positive or negative? The references are all in AU/ml and says normal range is between 1.21 and 1.52. These aren't the same units so I am a bit confused!
Any help would be very much appreciated! Thanks so much.
What substance would lower gastric intrinsic factor, destroy cobalamin or destroy cobalamins bonds meaning it cannot reach its destination and therefore cannot absorb?
Thank you,
There are extrinsic factors and intrinsic factors. Extrinsic factors of a blockchain are things like protocol upgrades, DeFi, stable coins, smart contracts, or new partnerships. While intrinsic factors are feel good elements, such as do you feel as a part of a cryptocurrency evolution by holding Tezos? Or do you feel happy as an ICO holder? Is being an ICO holder a status quo that everyone wants to be?
As we all can see, I think the intrinsic factors are lacking really bad here in Tezos. People are questioning why the other chain goes up while it doesn’t have as many extrinsic factors as Tezos. However, they may have a lot more intrinsic factors that make up for them.
So I think there needs to be a change in the Tezos ecosystem to somehow improve and create more intrinsic factors. More than anything else, people will always remember how you make them feel.
So I'm curious about the downside risk on this trade. Some backstory - I noticed the options chain for TZA had basically no volume or open interest for deep ITM calls about a week ago while also having very long options offered. Since it basically has nothing to price the options, I put some orders in to get more favorable bid asks over about a week and scalped little profits here and there. The MM is giving me a 10 cent bid-ask buffer as their fee for basically getting a bunch of 1/21/22 $1C with a breakeven of 3 cents over currently traded prices. I know that triple leveraged ETFs go down, but this particular one isn't really at risk of splitting and the underlying is at ATH even though it's currently the most underperforming part of the market (in terms of a combo of Debt to Income and EBIT). So I'm overall bearish meaning im overall bullish on TZA.
Here's my question: I was looking for regular good deals on calendar spreads on normal stocks this morning since it seemed iv rank on the stocks I like to trade dipped a bit. This is when I noticed I guess I had a downstream impact on the options chain, even though there was no open interest and barely any volume on the 1,2,3 strike calls before, I noticed that their bid asks had pulled in a bit. Makes sense as a delta hedge, however, it made me realize, basically every single option in the chain was priced with delta being .99 for the $1 strike. Meaning I could sell calendar spreads from the security I purchased....for the exact same price! or right around it. So this is my position (just a note, these are all separate positions in terms of calculating commissions, in total it will cost me 1.2% of my total debit):
+21 TZA C$1 1/21/22 (cost basis = 4.24)
-10 TZA C$1 7/16/21 (avg credit = 4.15)
-1 TZA. C$1 3/19/21 (avg credit = 4.20)
-2 TZA C$1 2/12/21 (avg credit = 4.20)
-3 TZA C$1 2/05/21 (avg credit=4.20)
-4 TZA C$1 1/29/21 (avg credit=4.18)
It ends up being a net debit of just over $420 since I'm net +1 on TZA contracts. The idea is I'm protected from a downside move in the underlying since I'm basically delta neutral. My reasoning here is in terms of just buying the call, I've reduced the ratio of minus to plus portfolio delta.
So here's where the title of the post comes into play: how exactly are options for leveraged ETFs priced. For example, I'm guessing they do price in that underlying volatility factors into the price (it's not exactly a 3x move for a 1 move in the underlying, i
... keep reading on reddit ➡My doctor told me testing intrinsic factor is costly and isn’t done often? Is there anyway else I could tell I’m not absorbing b12 correctly through blood work? I’m having numbness tingling nerve problems. Please let me know thank you.
I apologize if this post violates the "No Medical Advice" rule!
The following is a slightly edited excerpt from the book Security Analysis. The passage was written in 1934 and it is amazing how valid it is today.
In security analysis, there are two general attitudes that go into determining the market price of securities. They are investment attitudes and speculative attitudes.
Speculative attitudes include the following:
Market factors:
- Technical factors
- Manipulative factors
- Psychological factors
Speculative and investment attitudes may share the following attitudes:
Future value factors:
- Management
- Competitive conditions
- Possible and probably changes in volume, price, and costs
Investment attitudes are distinct from speculative attitudes in that they asses objective intrinsic value factors:
Intrinsic value factors:
- Earnings
- Dividends
- Assets
- Capital and Debt Structure
- Terms of the issue
- Other metrics that are considered fact.
All of these factors together form the attitude of the public towards the issue - causing them to present bids and asks at the price they deem appropriate to exchanges that in turn forms the current market price. Of course there have been many new developments since this was written, but big banks scalping for a few cents per share on each trade doesn't change the facts above.
It seems like good practice to think about all of these before making a purchase or sale to form a final opinion on if the transaction is an investment or a speculation, and even to think about what the person on the opposite side of the transaction is thinking.
Also goes to show that if efficient market theory really does exist, then the value of equities may be extremely disjoint with what its financial intrinsic value is.
The purpose of this post is not to enrage or start an argument like how some people tend to interpret posts, but rather to create some discussion points and hopefully add to all of our knowledge base or at least make you take a second and think about it.
The following is a slightly edited excerpt from the book Security Analysis. The passage was written in 1934 and it is amazing how valid it is today.
In security analysis, there are two general attitudes that go into determining the market price of securities. They are investment attitudes and speculative attitudes.
Speculative attitudes include the following:
Market factors:
- Technical factors
- Manipulative factors
- Psychological factors
Speculative and investment attitudes may share the following attitudes:
Future value factors:
- Management
- Competitive conditions
- Possible and probably changes in volume, price, and costs
Investment attitudes are distinct from speculative attitudes in that they asses objective intrinsic value factors:
Intrinsic value factors:
- Earnings
- Dividends
- Assets
- Capital and Debt Structure
- Terms of the issue
- Other metrics that are considered fact.
All of these factors together form the attitude of the public towards the issue - causing them to present bids and asks at the price they deem appropriate to exchanges that in turn forms the current market price. Of course there have been many new developments since this was written, but big banks scalping for a few cents per share on each trade doesn't change the facts above.
It seems like good practice to think about all of these before making a purchase or sale to form a final opinion on if the transaction is an investment or a speculation, and even to think about what the person on the opposite side of the transaction is thinking.
Also goes to show that if efficient market theory really does exist, then the value of equities may be extremely disjoint with what its financial intrinsic value is.
The purpose of this post is not to enrage or start an argument like how some people tend to interpret posts, but rather to create some discussion points and hopefully add to all of our knowledge base or at least make you take a second and think about it.
Can you permanently damage/decrease/f#ck up your Intrinsic Factor (and subsequent B12 absorption) from excessive drinking you did months/years prior?
