What the title says. Just curious. The amount of force releases from a nuclear detonation is massive. How does this not cause adverse reactions in shore? Ford the energy dissipate and release through the top of the explosion ?
They also decided that the same weakness must be present if not, more pronounced, in their American counterparts, a weakness they can exploit in their planned pre-emptive strike
The number surprised me and I thought that since the immediate fallout from nuclear weapons is about 1000 times more short-lived the cesium total should be about equal. But then I tried finding a source for only cesium. The table in this report by IAEA shows the cesium total from nuclear weapons as 7x10^(5) curie. And this website shows the Chernobyl total as 80 PBq. giving about 300 times more cesium from Nuclear weapons. Have I made a mistake? It sounds like a lot, but not unreasonable.
Edit: Correct number is three times more from Chernobyl.
As an example, the US tested two nuclear weapons between 1945 (New Mexico) and 1946 (Bikini Atoll), and the Roswell, New Mexico events took place in 1947.
Yes, it's true that most if not all theories are far-fetched, such as "aliens detecting nuclear test signals" on Earth. But it's fun to speculate! If the 'underwater civilization' theory holds, they must have been concerned with fallout contaminating their habitats.
Also, the creatures in Spongebob Squarepants are supposedly mutated lifeforms near the test site of Bikini Atoll. Maybe that is why Spongebob lives in "Bikini" bottom, as in at the bottom of the blast crater.
I have zero knowledge in this area, but the idea suddenly popped in to my head and I was curious to know. Googling told me we have radiation in us from the environment, but not specifically whether the radiation from the Chernobyl disaster or weapons testing has ended up in our bodies, even in trace amounts.
Please forgive my lack of knowledge, hoping you guys can help satiate my curiosity.
This question applies mostly to the 1954, Showa, Heisei, 2000, vs Megaguirus, and Kiryu Saga versions of the character.
It is common knowledge that Godzilla was mutated (or awakened depending on the continuity) as a result of nuclear weapons testing on Bikini Atoll by the United States in 1954. The first iconic scene in Godzilla (1954) of the fishing boat being destroyed is even a direct reference to this with the flashing lights.
Godzilla has been shown on multiple occasions to have some form of sapience, and can remember and even hold grudges against certain people and kaiju (ex. King Ghidorah, Spacegodzilla). If this is the case, then why does he always choose to attack Japanese cities instead of coastal American cities? The distance between the Marshall Islands and Hawaii is very close to the distance between the Marshall Islands and Japan, yet the security threat Godzilla poses to Hawaii (aside from Godzilla (2014), where Godzilla does not attack humans intentionally) is never acknowledged in canon.
The reason that Godzilla attacks Japanese cities is to feed on their nuclear power plants is not completely valid, because the original 1954, early Showa, 2000, Kiryu Saga, and Final Wars versions of Godzilla are specifically stated to hate humans for what they did to him and that he wants revenge.
Even with that being said, the only film versions of Godzilla that actively choose to attack the cities of other countries are the Final Wars version and Godzilla Earth. Does Godzilla just have no concept of multiple sovereign human nations and decides to attack whichever location is closest to him (Japan)? Is there an actual in-universe explanation for this occurrence that is backed up by Toho or another source?
