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Hey everyone, I’m having a really difficult time grasping usage of modal verbs in Spanish, especially when talking about the past. For example, I know “sé” means “I know/know how”,and the preterite alters this meaning, but I don’t understand how to express things like “should have/ would/have/must have” For could have, I have seen “Pudo” “Pudo haber” “podría haber” and I don’t know if you could possibly use other tenses as well. Do you have any advice or comprehensive resources on modals in Spanish? If so, I would really appreciate it because this topic is driving me crazy.

Why is this wrong: Ihre Familie müsst in München bleiben

It says the right answer is - muss, but wouldn't that be for er or ich and here it's familie, so i guess, plural?

Any explanation for this?

‘Do you know when she will leave?’ The ‘will’ here is placed before ‘she’. How can I tell whether the modal verb should be placed before or after the noun?

Hi, I wonder if I can use the sentence below to indicate a prediction in the future which I am not sure about: “She may have left by the time you arrive,” as an alternative for “She will have left by the time you arrive,”

Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you so much!!

I made this sentence

Je veuille censurais les médias sociaux.

My teacher told me after a modal verb there will always be a main verb in infinitive

So how should the sentence then be, and why?

I’m learning Swedish on Duolingo and have started learning the past and infinitive versions of verbs. And through some trial and error (but mostly reading the comments on the questions I’ve gotten wrong lol), it seems the correct way to structure a sentence with more than one verb can be confusing.

For instance:

The children love to draw.

[Barnen älskar att rita.]

‘Love’ is present form = älska(r) ‘To draw’ is infinitive form = att rita

Easy enough.

But then they have ones like this:

He usually uses my computer.

[Han brukar använda min dator.]

‘Usually’ is present form = bruka(r) ’Uses’ is infinitive form = …wait, where’s the ‘att’?

Ohhh, brukar is a modal verb. A special type of verb that can cause the next (or the rest of the?) infinitive verb(s) to be able to drop the att before them.

(Idk if this is gonna make any sense. I’m typing this up right before I head to sleep after being up all day and working a night shift.)

But basically, I’d like to know what all the modal verbs are. I’ve found a few websites (in the link) that list some, but it doesn’t seem like that’s all of them. Words like - brukar, vill, ska, behöver, kan, ……

Also, I’ve seen words like ’försöker’ have the ability to make the next infinitive word use the att optionally.

She tries to draw a moose. [Hon försöker (att) rita en älg.]

Are there any others like that as well?

Tack så mycket!

So from what I understand about Modal verbs, they generally modify another verb. This is probably an esoteric question, but I wanted to know about the difference between someone saying something like "I like fish (to eat), and I like fish (as an animal)."

The sentence "Ich mag Fisch" Is "I like fish", but is there a more correct way for someone to say "I like fish" implying they like fish as the animal rather than to eat as a food? Is there another verb you can modify instead of "essen" that has the meaning of liking something as it is rather than for a specific reason?

Will "Ich mag Fisch" generally have the implied "essen" at the end of the sentence? Or is it just all about context?

Thank you!

What are the main verbs considered auxiliary or modal in Lithuanian?

I am taking some notes and have come up with: daryti, galėti, padėti, reikėti, tapti, turėti and norėti.

Hello there. What’s the difference between “I should leave and I should be leaving”? Can you do the same by using would /must and will? Thanks

I'm looking for a video, it's a very sweet video I watched in the past. A child alone is doing an interview, the child uses all modal verbs to form a sentence and completes it when he finds the right sentence, it is considered an old video. Does anyone know this video?

Like it would be so easy to say "I'll can..." instead of "I'll be able to". Same with must. "'I' ll have to" is fine, but it'd be nice if we could use must. Just a stupid thought I had. Bye.

hello, I thought that after modals verbs, in Russian, the aspect to be used is imperfective

я могу играть на гитаре

ты хочешь есть или пить

but I've found sentences like:

Мы можем купить что-нибудь

So the rule I've made up in my mind is wrong, right?

Thanks

As the title reads
in English, I can say: "we shouldn't let him eat", we have the verb "let" and the verb "eat"

when I tried to say this in German I came up with this:
"Wir sollten ihn nicht essen lassen", which sounds weird, and according to my teacher, it's wrong too, as the Rule of " Ersatzinfinitiv " is used only with the perfect tense in german.

So the question is, what is the correct translation? And how do I use 2 verbs in a german sentence that starts with modal, If such a thing is possible anyway?

Raumanœtro doesn't have many adverbs thus far. Instead it uses verbs for many things other languages use adverbs or inflection for, such as reluctance, and the immediate future.

Here is a chart of all of the verbs, they are given in the infinative, and because Romanœtro is a romance a posteori artlang, it mostly derives from latin.

note: some sounds were elided in development of vulgar latin

This allows sentences like "He should be about to run away." to become "Læ devæ vælæ rrasceljo" [lɛ de.vɛ vɛ.lɛ ra.ʃe.ʎo]. There can even be long chains like "coibo rroscutaræ ræsraræ fuotunaræ patronaræ" [koi.vo ro.ʃu.ta.ɾɛ ɾɛ.ʃa.ɾɛ fwo.du.na.ɾɛ pa.t͡ʃo.na.ɾɛ] (I dare to, even though I don't want to, to nearly, trip (tripping would've been a good idea)).

Subtleties

There is also a subtle meaning between fuotunaræ and devœræ: only devœræ can be used to talk about likelihood. Devœræ also expresses an imminancy that fuotunaræ doesn't.

Additionally, vadæræ only actually exists in the infinitive, because it is used to mark future in modal chains. Otherwise the inflected future tense will be used. This shows how important constructions like this are to

In the long chain mentionned above, "coibo rroscutaræ ræsraræ fuotunaræ patronaræ" , "coibo" is important. Be cause it comes first, it means that the actual verb done, "patronaræ", did indeed happen. This is important because "fuotunaræ" is usually neutral in terms of if the thing mentioned after it actually happened or not (if the meaning of "devœræ" would be clear, pragmatics take hold, and using "fuotunaræ" instead implies that it didn't happen), but because "cobbæræ" is used first, it must have actually occured.

Grammar nerd here, when you use a reflexive verb with a modal where does the reflexive pronoun stand? As in : Können wir (uns?) hier ein bisschen ausruhen?

I thought it should go immediately after the nominative pronoun but now I’m unsure.

What is the difference between можно/нужно or должен купить and можно/нужно/должен покупать?

Another question: can I use the perfective aspect with a midal verb in the future? Like я должен купю хлеб следующий неделю (I will need to buy bread next week).

Thanks for replying

Dag allen!

I'll be coming to the Flanders for my higher education this fall and so I've been learning Dutch now for the past 6 months via a book, google and various youtube videos and I seem to have hit a roadblock with some topics.

1. The use of modal auxiliary verbs in past tense:'

What I understand is, when using a modal verb as an auxiliary verb + past tense then past participle is not used and a simple infinitive is used

As per the book, the sentence "What did you want to buy" should be written as:

"Wat heeft je willen kopen?" ( I understand this is the VVT form of the sentence), but when I google it, it says "Wat wilde je kopen?" (As per my understanding, this uses the OVT form and takes the past participle of want- wilde to form the sentence instead of using the auxiliary verb hebben)

For all such sentences, the book uses VVT form while google translates it into the OVT form and it is getting confusing for me. If I take a more complex sentence like "The children were not allowed to play here" then it gets translated into:

"De kinderen hebben hier niet mogen spelen" (as per the book)/ "De kinderen mochten hier niet spelen" (as per google).

As per my understanding, both sentences are correct but I'm not sure which one to use or which one is more preferred. Do both sentences have their uses as per some certain circumstances?

2. OVT VS VVT

This brings me to my 2nd problem which is when to use OVT and when to use VVT.

What I understand is:

a) No action, just info in past- OVT (eg- gisteren was ik in amsterdam)

b) Past actions having an impact currently- VVT (eg- Het heeft vannacht geregend, zo de straat is nat)

c) Past habits/ regular actions- OVT (eg-Vroger ging ik ieder dag zwemmen)

d) Everything else- VVT

3. Placement of certain words

I understand that the word order in Dutch is as:

Sub-Verb-Time-Other Stuff-Place-2nd Verb(Infinitve),

I'm also familiar with the usage of graag and Aan het but I sometimes get confused where to place words like always(altijd), certainly (beslist) etc.

Any kind of help/ explanation will be greatly appreciated.

Thank you :)