i was just wondering if theres anyone who can shed some real light on Charles the ii of Spain. as far as the authenticity of the results of the autopsy, the actual possibility of these findings being true, and the cause. obviously im not looking for a full, dedicated analysis. more-so an overview. the findings seem impossible and all i can find are answers contingent on rumors or a story that i find hard to believe. anyways, thanks for anyone who may know.
What changes will there be in European history if Charles II of Spain was of sound mind and body? The biggest one I can think of is the War of the Spanish Succession won't occur or will be very different to the OTL, but what will this mean for the neighboring kingdoms of France, Portugal & the Holy Roman Empire and for the Hapsburg dynasty?
Surely this must be historys worst example of inbreeding. Charles II of Spain was also nicknamed "the bewitched king".
Charles’ father was Philip IV of Spain, and his mother was Mariana. The two were paternal cousins, as well as uncle and niece. This means that Charles was not only their son; he was also his father’s great-nephew, his mother’s first cousin, and his father’s second cousin. Complications like that one were common among the Habsburgs. Should also make for akward family dinners...
The Habsburgs were notorious for marrying cousins, uncles, aunts, whatever, to keep power within their family. Case in point: All of Charles’ great-grandparents were descended from the same parents: Philip I and Joanna of Castile. Basically, their children had all married their cousins, who had all married their cousins (or someone of a close relation). By the time Charles came along, he was more inbred than if his parents had been brother and sister.
Not really a family \"tree\" since it doesnt have branches..
Marrying a relative causes genetic problems for the children because of how the genes interact with each other. Usually, if one parent gives a gene that is deficient, the corresponding gene from the other parent cancels it out. For inbred children, though, they often inherit the same genes from both parents. Case in point: 25% of Charles’ genes were duplicates, meaning that fully one-quarter of his genes were the same from both parents.
Their poor health due to inbreeding was some of the worst in the world. Case in point: while Spanish peasants had an infant mortality rate of about 20%, the infant mortality rate of the Habsburg royals was 30%.
As a result of Charles’ inbreeding, he was severely deformed. The famous “Habsburg jaw” was a severe underbite; Charles’ was so intense that he could not even close his mouth, not even for eating. He could not chew his food and he stayed silent for most of his life. He suffered from rickets, hallucinations, and an oversized head. He was impotent and infertile, and barely able to walk. Charles did not speak until he turned four, and he was unable to walk until the age of eight.
Charles likely suffered from two genetic disorders: combined pituitary hormone deficiency and distal renal tubular acidosis. The first, caused by a mutation in the gene necessary to produce hormones in th
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When they breed I kill one of the parents then forcefeed the baby until it’s grown up then force the two to made and repeat the cycle
Wikipedia : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charles_II_of_Spain
DNA : https://pastebin.com/ZcpahCVk
https://preview.redd.it/9o1fh7vmeec61.png?width=796&format=png&auto=webp&s=cfe999ee86699f959df9bde4538a956de9cebe8e
Has Charles II of Spain every been impersonated by an actor or portrayed in a film by an actor? I can’t find anything online of any actors ever portraying him in a film or anything. Is there a reason for that?
I don't know why I remembered this little detail of history, but "he was convinced" is the best answer I've heard online and a lot of content on the Internet about the War of the Spanish Succession makes note of the fact that Charles gave Philip the crown in his will, possibly because he thought he was best-suited to keep the Spanish Empire together. What I don't understand is why he felt that the Habsburgs could not accomplish this, despite being a Habsburb himself? Can it all just be boiled down to severe inbreeding leaving his brain addled or was there a real reason? Was there any relation between the Spanish Habsburgs and the Bourbon family at this time?
It seems so strange to me that Spain would not have the Bourbon rulers it has today if not for Charles II. I wonder what the long-term implications would have been for Spain's American holdings and the longevity of the Holy Roman Empire once Charles V ascended to the throne as both Holy Roman Emperor and King of Spain.
Hello everyone.
I am currently writing my final exam project of university, and i have chosen to write about "Inbreeding in the european roayl family" and i have read alot about King Charles II of spain and about how messed up he was, because of inbreeding. But the thing is, that i cant find any old sources describing him. I have read about that there should be an autopsy report and a letter sent to the king of France describing the newborn king, but i cant find them anywhere.
I am begging you guys to help me, with any information you have.
