I'm just a layman, so forgive me if this question is so stupid it makes your blood boil. If you look at English, it looks like the odd one out with respect to other Germanic languages. It has comparatively simple grammar (no gendered nouns, SVO, almost complete absence of cases, relatively little inflection) while having a vocabulary that's all over the place and very open to borrowing from other languages. Could it be that modern English was born out of a Proto-Germanic creole?

Edit: I mean the reconstructed version. The reconstructions are written in the latin alphabet.

So I am working to improve Toltheng, and I am starting with a retry on the protolang. when making the original toltheng, I would just end up realizing i need a certain feature way later on and have to make something vastly different from the protolang.(because it was supposed to be there from the beggining). so i am going to make a fuller protolang first, then evolve it more carefully. This is where I am starting:

>SOV language

>nouns are often single root, but can have two roots combined for precision (water-container>bucket). they can additionally have a prefix such as "fear of" and a marker at the end for gender. (a maximum length "word" would be something like "FEAR OF+BONES+PERSON+FEMALE" for the fear of female skeletons.).

>verbs are prefixes attached to the very back of an Object. they are generally two roots such as "jump over" being "Go PAST"+"JUMP"

>adjectives are a thing now, Wich they weren't in toltheng. they are one root, but more adjectives can be added to the back of a word infinitely. they go before the noun but after the verb.

>particles are used to determine key things in the sentence, and go between the Verb and the Subject. for example, "Cat IS Naughty" vs. "Cat ISN'T Naughty". they are also what is used to show past or future tense.

>I am still working out the kinks in phonology, but here is my rough draft:

edit: added /k, g/ and rounded ɰ!

I have several questions:

1. Am I Being Dumb and is there another, much easier and more naturalistic way to do this?
2. I am striving for at least 1,000/5,000word roots, how would I disperse them between noun roots, particles, adjectives, verb roots, noun modifiers, gender markers, etc?
3. any advice on what to expand on such as asking questions, making demands vs. requests, or other grammatical pieces?
4. any advice on phonology?

Anatolian is usually described as the "first to branch off" from Proto-Indo-European, but what that really amounts to is that Proto-Indo-European split into two branches: one which would became Proto-Anatolian, and one which would became Proto-Non-Anatolian (the ancestor of English, Russian, Tocharian, etc.).

But what actual differences are there between PIE and Proto-Non-Anatolian ('PNA')? One that I've heard is the development of the feminine gender. But what about sound changes? Surely over the centuries between PIE and PNA there must have been various sound changes?

e.g. are there some distinctions that existed in PIE, but were lost in PNA? Or maybe a consonant split?

I had always assumed there was some documented Cushitic languages spoken in the Kingdom of Kush but going through the wikipedia page on the kingdom and looking around the internet a bit I can't find a name of a documented cushitic language from the kingdom of Kush. Meroitic doesn't seem to have enough evidence to make any convincing classification within known language families. And the Nubian languages seem firmly within the East Sudanic language family.

So what happened here? Did the name in the bible come from the historically attested kingdom and get assigned to a group of languages?

Also, either much is not publicly accessible or much is not known about proto-Cushitic. I can't seem to find anywhere that states what the first attested Cushitic language is. And I know this might be going too far for a linguistics subreddit but does anyone here happen to know some solid linguistic-genetic-archeological connections between pastoral expansions in Africa and the Cushitic languages? It seems all the Cushitic groups are pastoralists.

Lastly, if any of the above has already been asked here please point me to the posts.

Thank you!

Considering that the Nordic Bronze Age is recognized to have strong links to the Mycenean World via art and trade, are there any linguistic relics of this interaction?

The example I have in mind is Sino-Tibetan, when Old Chinese hasn't even been reconstructed yet (at least, no agreed-upon reconstruction). Are there any more examples of language families whose components (genera?) have no reconstructions?

óu̯is híkwoi-kwe

óu̯is i̯ās u̯lā́nos ne es

híkwons dédorke;

ton gwarún u̯ókhon u̯ókhentã,

ton makrón phóron,

ton mrətón ōkã phérontã.

óu̯is híkwoihi u̯eikwe:

“kərdi̯ā ákhnutoi moi,

anérã u̯idóntei híkwons agóntã.”

híkwoi u̯eikwont: “klúthi óu̯i!

kərdi̯ā ákhnutoi ãsmí u̯idóntei,

anḗr, denspóthis, óu̯i̯on u̯lā́non

su̯oi kwhermón u̯éstrãn kwoi̯éi̯ei,

óu̯i̯on-kwe u̯lā́nos ne ésti.”

toi kluu̯ṓs óu̯is agróm phégwoto

Hi guys, I've been reading a controversial book called "Black Athena" by Martin Bernal and in the introduction he says "I therefore believe that there must once have been a people who spoke Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European". He says that the split between Afroasiatic and Indo-European probably happened between 50-30,000 years before present, but it could've occurred earlier.

I don't known much about linguistics, but I've never heard of anyone saying that there was ever a "Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European" language. Was this ever a real language?

So I'm an amateur linguist and language creator. I've been wondering if there are any reliable academic sources on the words and origins of the proto-Dravidian languages that preceded modern-day Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, and Malayalam (along with smaller languages such as Kurukh, Gondi, Brahui, Tulu, and Malto).

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I remember reading something about a figure in Mycenian culture that could be interpreted as Persephone that played a larger part in the underworld than she does in later greek mythology. However I can't seem to find any sources backing the claim up. I remember them claiming that the moniker "Dread Persephone" being a vestige of that relationship, but wasn't sure if that was just speculation or if there was an artifact of some kind supporting it.

The reason most proto-languages only go a few thousand years back is, AFAIK, because after that it becomes increasingly difficult to identify relations. So how are we able to connect Afro-Asiatic languages, after such a long period of time? Were they in some way particularly conservative?

An obvious answer is that we have very old records of Afro-Asiatic, but I presume we'd still be able to tell the languages are related even if we didn't have those records, wouldn't we? Modern linguists would still know Hausa, Arabic, and Somali were related, even if we didn't have records of Akkadian or whatever.

Of all the reconstructed proto-langs I've seen, none seem to have any [f], [v] or any other labiodental sounds, despite them being seen often in a lot of modern languages.

I've read somewhere a long time ago, that the prevalence of those sounds is related to the changes in the mouth physiology after the spread of agriculture, but I had just assumed it was some r/badlinguistics material back then. Even then, it doesn't really explain why it took them so long to develop in PIE, for example (mostly after 200-300 AD in the western branches, afaic).

Another possible explanation would be that those are very hard to reconstruct and some other reconstructed phonemes (/b/, for example), actually had a [v] sound, and we just cannot know for sure.

Is there any accepted explanation for this?

Edit: just realized, that while /v/ in Western IE languages is quite modern, as I've said, /f/ is actually a lot older, being present in Italic languages from early 1st millenium BCE.

Stiurjan(a) seems to be related to PIE steh2-, or teh2-, with similar meaning. Tropos is linked with PIE trep-. Any sound or morphological changes that might link the word steer with the greek word for twisting?

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I know,this is dumb,and I may be innacuurate with the history but hear me out.

So,say there was this tribe of proto greeks. It was powerful and they always attacked others during environmental disasters/when nature was acting up and other tribes were confused about it. So one day,their luck runs out and the people's which will form the. Mycaeneans after a while band together to dispose of them. Said proto greeks got their numbers downed by the hundreds and thus went far away from where other tribes would go-into mount Olympus.

After more conflicts and other stuff,they are forced to go higher into the mountains,where conditions suck ass, and thus their numbers dwindle even more and inbreeding comes to play a role for a while.

Years pass and settlements are built. One day a random hunter ventures into Olympus in search of fancy animals to land himself a jackpot. He wasn't as prepared as he thought he was and he lost himself and almost died due to the cold as fuck conditions. The tribe finds and rescues him. In their settlement,the dude is being nursed back to health from near death,but he starts having hallucinations throughout that time.

So,the village elder (Zeus) starts telling him stories about the tribe's glory days and how they used weather and other stuff to their advantage,not to mention his family. The Hunter's hallucinations however start making him think that he has been saved by gods who can make miracles with the weather and life. Some time passes and the hunter is sent off with proper preparations back to the safer forests. He returns to his settlement and explains what he experienced,which intrigues everyone and the rest is history.

Meanwhile, Zeus and his tribe die in one particularly harsh winter on the mountain,so when the Greeks decided to go to Olympus and didn't see any god,they thought that said gods were in another plane of existence invisible and untouchable to the average mortal.

Pardon me if my wording is lackluster

So I was looking at the etymological origins of the god Hades and Wikipedia says that it ultimately comes from a PIE root meaning "unseen" while also saying that the Proto-Greek form was "Awides". When looking for secondary sources or just googling "Awides" all that I can find is other websites basically copying word for word what wikipedia says. Where does this "Awides" come from? I'm not a Linguist btw, just very interested in these sorts of stuff. P.s. I originally posted this on rlinguistics but they directed me to this subreddit.

Hi guys, I've been reading a controversial book called "Black Athena" by Martin Bernal and in the introduction he says "I therefore believe that there must once have been a people who spoke Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European". He says that the split between Afroasiatic and Indo-European probably happened between 50-30,000 years before present, but it could've occurred earlier.

I don't known much about linguistics, but I've never heard of anyone saying that there was ever a "Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European" language. Was this ever a real language?

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