i hear a lot about how munda languages influenced Sanskrit

And how did they end up getting to Eastern India and the Nicobars?

iirc austroasiatic peoples were actually the first people who settled the sunda islands, with the austronesians coming from the north and assimilating and intermixing with them (most indonesians from western indonesia actually have more indochinese dna in them instead of austronesian), bringing their language along with them. which begs the question, is there any actual austroasiatic influence in modern austronesian languages spoken in the sunda islands (mainly java, borneo, and sumatra) ?

my biggest suspect towards this is the SVO word order. most philippine and formosan languages have VSO word order, while malay and other languages spoken nearby are SVO. austroasiatic languages like vietnamese and khmer are both also SVO. I think thats really the only think i can think of off the top of my head.

A question that might be a little strange I agree, but nevertheless I ask this because I have seen claims that Vietnamese is more of a creole or a hybrid Sinitic+Austroasiatic; so I was wondering... Here's some links to clarify my pov:

https://www.quora.com/Is-Vietnamese-a-Sino-Austroasiatic-hybrid-language?q=is%20vietnamese%20an%20hybrid%20la

https://qr.ae/pNyDGt

http://eastasiaorigin.blogspot.com/2017/07/origin-of-vietnamese-language.html

I'm just a layman, so forgive me if this question is so stupid it makes your blood boil. If you look at English, it looks like the odd one out with respect to other Germanic languages. It has comparatively simple grammar (no gendered nouns, SVO, almost complete absence of cases, relatively little inflection) while having a vocabulary that's all over the place and very open to borrowing from other languages. Could it be that modern English was born out of a Proto-Germanic creole?

Hello Conlangers! I want to see anyone who has created Austroasiatic-based conlang. Which civilization affects your Austroasiatic-based conlang? China or India?

NOTE: This is an extension of a question that I've posted in Quora last year.

DETAILS:

>In his personal page (now through Internet Archive; the original link that I've posted as link in my Quora question had long gone), linguist Andrew Hsiu hypothesized that proto-Hmong-Mien (and by extension, proto-Tai-Kadai) was a creole language formed in northern Hunan (in case of proto-Tai-Kadai, Pearl River Delta) involving "Old Middle Yangtze" substrate, Austroasiatic, a missing Sino-Tibetan branch called "Donor Hmong-Mien" and Old Chinese (in the case of proto-Tai-Kadai: pre-Austronesian, "Old Middle Yangtze" substrate, Austroasiatic and Old Chinese). In fact, it seems that in another post, he also compared both proto-Hmong-Mien and proto-Austroasiatic (the hyphenated link is also archived). What's your personal thoughts on such hypothesis. By the way, here's the updated version of Andrew Hsiu's personal site. Thanks!

So I am working to improve Toltheng, and I am starting with a retry on the protolang. when making the original toltheng, I would just end up realizing i need a certain feature way later on and have to make something vastly different from the protolang.(because it was supposed to be there from the beggining). so i am going to make a fuller protolang first, then evolve it more carefully. This is where I am starting:

>SOV language

>nouns are often single root, but can have two roots combined for precision (water-container>bucket). they can additionally have a prefix such as "fear of" and a marker at the end for gender. (a maximum length "word" would be something like "FEAR OF+BONES+PERSON+FEMALE" for the fear of female skeletons.).

>verbs are prefixes attached to the very back of an Object. they are generally two roots such as "jump over" being "Go PAST"+"JUMP"

>adjectives are a thing now, Wich they weren't in toltheng. they are one root, but more adjectives can be added to the back of a word infinitely. they go before the noun but after the verb.

>particles are used to determine key things in the sentence, and go between the Verb and the Subject. for example, "Cat IS Naughty" vs. "Cat ISN'T Naughty". they are also what is used to show past or future tense.

>I am still working out the kinks in phonology, but here is my rough draft:

edit: added /k, g/ and rounded ɰ!

I have several questions:

1. Am I Being Dumb and is there another, much easier and more naturalistic way to do this?
2. I am striving for at least 1,000/5,000word roots, how would I disperse them between noun roots, particles, adjectives, verb roots, noun modifiers, gender markers, etc?
3. any advice on what to expand on such as asking questions, making demands vs. requests, or other grammatical pieces?
4. any advice on phonology?

Anatolian is usually described as the "first to branch off" from Proto-Indo-European, but what that really amounts to is that Proto-Indo-European split into two branches: one which would became Proto-Anatolian, and one which would became Proto-Non-Anatolian (the ancestor of English, Russian, Tocharian, etc.).

But what actual differences are there between PIE and Proto-Non-Anatolian ('PNA')? One that I've heard is the development of the feminine gender. But what about sound changes? Surely over the centuries between PIE and PNA there must have been various sound changes?

e.g. are there some distinctions that existed in PIE, but were lost in PNA? Or maybe a consonant split?

I had always assumed there was some documented Cushitic languages spoken in the Kingdom of Kush but going through the wikipedia page on the kingdom and looking around the internet a bit I can't find a name of a documented cushitic language from the kingdom of Kush. Meroitic doesn't seem to have enough evidence to make any convincing classification within known language families. And the Nubian languages seem firmly within the East Sudanic language family.

So what happened here? Did the name in the bible come from the historically attested kingdom and get assigned to a group of languages?

Also, either much is not publicly accessible or much is not known about proto-Cushitic. I can't seem to find anywhere that states what the first attested Cushitic language is. And I know this might be going too far for a linguistics subreddit but does anyone here happen to know some solid linguistic-genetic-archeological connections between pastoral expansions in Africa and the Cushitic languages? It seems all the Cushitic groups are pastoralists.

Lastly, if any of the above has already been asked here please point me to the posts.

Thank you!

Hi guys, I've been reading a controversial book called "Black Athena" by Martin Bernal and in the introduction he says "I therefore believe that there must once have been a people who spoke Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European". He says that the split between Afroasiatic and Indo-European probably happened between 50-30,000 years before present, but it could've occurred earlier.

I don't known much about linguistics, but I've never heard of anyone saying that there was ever a "Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European" language. Was this ever a real language?

The example I have in mind is Sino-Tibetan, when Old Chinese hasn't even been reconstructed yet (at least, no agreed-upon reconstruction). Are there any more examples of language families whose components (genera?) have no reconstructions?

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So I'm an amateur linguist and language creator. I've been wondering if there are any reliable academic sources on the words and origins of the proto-Dravidian languages that preceded modern-day Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, and Malayalam (along with smaller languages such as Kurukh, Gondi, Brahui, Tulu, and Malto).

The reason most proto-languages only go a few thousand years back is, AFAIK, because after that it becomes increasingly difficult to identify relations. So how are we able to connect Afro-Asiatic languages, after such a long period of time? Were they in some way particularly conservative?

An obvious answer is that we have very old records of Afro-Asiatic, but I presume we'd still be able to tell the languages are related even if we didn't have those records, wouldn't we? Modern linguists would still know Hausa, Arabic, and Somali were related, even if we didn't have records of Akkadian or whatever.

Of all the reconstructed proto-langs I've seen, none seem to have any [f], [v] or any other labiodental sounds, despite them being seen often in a lot of modern languages.

I've read somewhere a long time ago, that the prevalence of those sounds is related to the changes in the mouth physiology after the spread of agriculture, but I had just assumed it was some r/badlinguistics material back then. Even then, it doesn't really explain why it took them so long to develop in PIE, for example (mostly after 200-300 AD in the western branches, afaic).

Another possible explanation would be that those are very hard to reconstruct and some other reconstructed phonemes (/b/, for example), actually had a [v] sound, and we just cannot know for sure.

Is there any accepted explanation for this?

Edit: just realized, that while /v/ in Western IE languages is quite modern, as I've said, /f/ is actually a lot older, being present in Italic languages from early 1st millenium BCE.

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The bad linguistics in question:

>Varför kallar vi de vita flingorna som faller från himlen för just snö?
>
>Jo, snö är ett gammalt germanskt ord. Det har massor av släktingar, till exempel engelskans snow och tyskans Schnee. Det går att spåra ända till sanskrit, som är vårt indoeuropeiska urspråk. Där heter det sneha, som betyder något i stil med ”klibbighet”. Vi använder alltså samma ord som alla andra!

My translation:

>Why do we call the white flakes that fall from the sky snö?
>
>Well, snö is an old Germanic word. It has many relatives, e.g. the English snow and the German Schnee. It can be traced all the way back to Sanskrit, which is our Indo-European proto-language. There it is called sneha, which means something along the lines of "stickiness". We use the same word as everyone else!

Or any non-dravidian influence

Hi guys, I've been reading a controversial book called "Black Athena" by Martin Bernal and in the introduction he says "I therefore believe that there must once have been a people who spoke Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European". He says that the split between Afroasiatic and Indo-European probably happened between 50-30,000 years before present, but it could've occurred earlier.

I don't known much about linguistics, but I've never heard of anyone saying that there was ever a "Proto-Afroasiatic-Indo-European" language. Was this ever a real language?

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