Here's a basic overview of my understanding.
Since the corded ware language must have been neither centum nor satem, post-corded ware descendant languages must have innovated it independently from both Greek, and Tocharian.
Is that logic right?
I'd be thankful if u people answer me.
I am curious why these two IE families share a few distinctive features, and if it's more than a coincidence.
Both retain a lot of interesting PIE features: Sanskrit/Avestan and Latvian retain a lot of the grammar in particular, and both families are highly fusional and affixing. They also both have retroflex consonants as a result of sandhi processes - specifically, because of the RUKI rule (which is also a feature of Armenian). They also both retained the syllabic consonants present in PIE which are not attested in many other daughter languages: syllabic [r] or [ΙΎ] are present in Sanskrit as well as a couple Slavic languages, syllabic [l] is present in Sanskrit as well, and syllabic [v] or [Κ] can be found in Russian (but this wasn't in PIE).
I think the most interesting point however is the genetic link: The Y-DNA haplogroups R1a and some of the L haplogroup subclades are shared by North Indian, Iranian, and Eastern European ethnicities. The R-haplogroup correlation seems pretty strong to me especially.
I think I'm definitely not an expert and probably just grasping at straws, but I would love to see whether or why these groups are related, or why these commonalities exist.
Ancient Persian and Sanskrit langauges from 500 BCE have enough similarity, through which we can estimate that a Single Indo Iranian Language existed approximately 3500 years ago.
The next language branch closes to Iranian is Slavic, so how long ago do we think Iranian and Slavic were one language before they started to diverge?
Hello! I may need some external perspectives on a dilemma I've had a for a while. Due to having loads of free time, I can seriously get back to language learning. The problem is choosing which languages to focus on and I'm having a hard time regarding my choice of an Indo-Iranian language.
Before I get started, here's some info about me: I have a lot of experience learning languages but only Indo-European (Germanic, Romance, Balto-Slavic) and Uralic ones. I've never learned any Indo-Iranian language before and I know only some general basics about them. Now, to my dilemma. I'm very interested in...
Sanskrit. For many reasons and I really have no excuse to skip that one but due to it being a classical language and quite different, I'm thinking about studying a modern related language beforehand, but I have no clue which one is the closest to Sanskrit. Any idea?
Bengali. I want to read Bengali literature, I love how the writing system looks, I heard it might be quite helpful in understanding some other North Indian languages, and its grammar seems to be easy to me (due to it being genderless, for instance, and I prefer such languages). However, I'm very scared of not finding enough resources and opportunities to practice.
Persian. I want to read classical Persian literature, I may need it for a personal project, I'm fascinated by the Persian world, the language is apparently very approachable to a foreigner. However, the script creeps me out, and just like with Bengali, I'm afraid of not finding enough online resources.
Punjabi. I'm fascinated by it, I'm interested in Sikhism, it has loads of native speakers. Nonetheless, same issue with resources.
For some reason, I absolutely don't want to learn Hindi, so that rules out this common option.
Do you guys have any advice? Which of these languages (or perhaps another one of the same family) is the most approachable to a person who knows, amongst others, French, English, German, and Russian? And which one may help learn others? Thanks a lot!
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/-%CE%AF%CF%83%CE%BA%CE%BF%CF%82
What is the equivalent suffix in Iranian and Indian languages please?
Anyone who's studied an Indo-Aryan language has probably encountered this. Sanskrit has them, and so do many modern Indian languages (I learned about them from Bengali). It is what it sounds like: it's an "R"- alveolar tap or trill - but it's inexplicably referred to as a "vowel." Most languages even lump it together with other vowels in their writing systems.
Example: In Bengali, the character we use is ΰ¦. At the beginning of words, it's pronounced [ΙΎi], as in ΰ¦ΰ¦€ΰ§ΰ¦¬ΰ¦Ώΰ¦ (Ritvik, given name). When it follows a consonant, it's sometimes [ΙΎi], as in বΰ§ΰ¦·ΰ§ΰ¦ΰ¦Ώ (BrΜ₯αΉ£αΉi, [bΙΎiΚΚi], "rain") but other times is just [i], as in বΰ§ΰ¦¦ΰ§ΰ¦§ΰ¦Ύ (BrΜ₯ddhΔ, [bid^h :a], "old woman").
WTF is the origin story of this crazy phoneme? What was its original phonetic value in Sanskrit? Why is it called a "vowel" when it is usually a cluster, or a syllabic consonant? Does it come from Sanskrit, or even further back from a proto-language, like Proto-Indo-Aryan? Any answer to these questions would be appreciated.
https://preview.redd.it/qoxip7qqthg51.jpg?width=1898&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=c6d27d51b886aa11e0b5ac74ee1682b6283e9e0e
Apologies for the flare, if incorrect.
Iβm familiar with numerous North Indian languages, such as Gujarati, Punjabi, Hindi etc.
My friend and I (a Farsi speaker) compare words between different Indo Aryan languages and Farsi, and we can never seem to find many similarities apart from the many loanwords Farsi has contributed to many North Indian languages.
Does anyone know of any actual cognates between Indo Aryan languages and Farsi, or even within the wider Iranian language family?
I've been trying to find the language of this song so that I can translate the lyrics and know what they're saying!
Skip to 2:25 mark here:
https://soundcloud.com/easy-summer-label/alex-skywalker-mantra-original-mix
Any tips appreciated!
https://i.redd.it/a2momyl403741.gif
Theyβd be Indo-Iranian languages, the ones that you speak so you put that. I will add also older Indo-Iranian languages and ethnic groups flairs too if you want to put that
Edit: Iβm working on the flairs now
We all (probably) know that langauges are categorized in different language groups and different branches and specific langauges
Example: Indo European group, romance branche, portugese language
How close are different branches to each other, and how much easier is it for someone who is so distant to learn another language in another branch of the same group
Similarly to how there are plenty of resources showing evolution of Romance languages from Latin or in general languages stemming out of Proto-Indo-European ( I am aware Iranian languages are classed in it but too often I find these resources focusing mainly on bigger languages than most of languages in the Iranian group)
I don't know if the rest of the languages besides Indo-Iranian have a specific name to classify them, that's why I wrote "western".
I noticed that around the Northern Kashmir area - there are Iranian, Indo-Aryan, and Dardic languages spoken. Why isn't this area regarded as a potential urheimat for the Indo-Iranian languages?
Also, why and how did Dardic branch from Indo-Iranian, and when did it do so?
There hasn't been much research on this group of languages.
BETWeen Indo-Aryan and Iranian, which languages are a more conserved version of PIE?
I was just thinking about how widespread Iranian languages were prevalent at one time. I'm beginning to think that one or more of the Alans, Sarmatians, Scythians, etc. may have been Armenians.
The Armenians were located closer to Ukraine where these languages were spoken.
Moreover, Armenian is quite similar to Iranian languages. There are a few recorded words which survive, but perhaps those words which recorded from the Scythians/Sarmatians/Alans is actually closer to Armenian than it is to an Iranian language.
From what I understand, the Indo-Iranian sub-branch of the IE languages diverged a little before 1,800 BC. Linguistic paleontology suggests this (see "Deva/Diva", "ahura/asura", and many more). The Indian Aryans migrated to South Asia around 1,800 BC, and they spoke Sanksrit, an Indo-Aryan language.
Several centuries later, Iranian languages came into existence around 1,000 BC when the Iranian Aryans entered the Iranian Plateau. Coincidentally, this time also coincides with the time frame of Zoroaster.
Why didn't Iranian language become distinct the exact same time as the Indian-Aryan languages, since they diverged from the same proto-Indo-Iranian language?
What is other evidence, using linguistic paleontology, of the Indian-Iranian split?
My ultimate goal is a fuller understanding of how Norse belief came to have so much in common with Vedic thought, and so many points of variance with Greek and Roman myth. Also, the influence of Zoroastrian philosophy on Eastern European Mythology and Norse Mythology and vice versa. I realize this is a big ask, but most of the material I have found is equal parts race-mythologizing and half-baked mysticisms.
