https://preview.redd.it/b44ks5r0hpz71.jpg?width=562&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=f575ed1210ed1e313803eca692d54417408c94a4
This was the main fear of Francis and why he dissolved the HRE. But let’s say he dies of a heart attack before he dissolved the HRE and Napoleon is elected as Holy Roman Emperor: what’s next for Europe?
Napoleon was taking massive chunks of the HRE at the time, and beat Austrian forces at Austerlitz. Francis II then abolished the HRE. Both the title of Emperor of Austria and Emperor of France were seen as inferior to being the Emperor of the HRE. If Napoleon was able to become Emperor of the HRE, he would be the (nominal) superior to Austria, which was unacceptable to Francis.
Most of the land became the Confederation of the Rhine, which was split into the German Confederation and its members after Napoleon's defeat. The rest of the German unification is history.
What if Francis never dissolved it?
We are taught that Charles V became Holy Roman Emperor thanks to Jakob Fugger "the rich"'s financial contributions, which let him "buy" the Electors' votes. But why his rivals were Francis I of France and Henry VIII of England? Was it possible for the ruler of a state outside the imperial territory to become Emperor? If I'm not mistaken both France and England were not part of the Empire. I've thought about the possibility of personal unions between France and England on the one hand and an imperial duchy or territory on the other (something like the Great Britain-Hanover PU in the XVIII century) enabling the rulers of France and England to run as "candidates" for the imperial election, but I don't know if something similar actually existed at the time. Am I completely off-base? Thanks in advance.
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I believe, that's because their titles carried over from the titles of the Holy Roman Emperor. When the Holy Roman Empire dissolved and Francis II founded the Austrian Empire from it's ashes, he just carried that part of his title over.
From Wikipedia, they inherited the claim from the House of Lorraine.
"King of Jerusalem[Edit]^^1
The [Kingdom of Jerusalem]^^2 was abolished upon its conquest by the Egyptian Mamluks in 1291 AD[3]. The Habsburgs were one of many dynasties to claim the title. They inherited it through the [House of Lorraine]^^3 . In the 18th century, the title was added by [Leopold I of Lorraine]^^4 , [Francis I]^^5 's father, in order to claim a royal title. More recently, the current King of Spain, [Felipe VI of Spain]^^6 , holds the (entirely ceremonial) title of King of Jerusalem alongside countless other defunct titles."
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Author: /u/JurisDoctor
1: *n**.wikip*dia.o**/*/index.php*title*Grand_t***e_*f_th*_Emperor_o**Aus*ria&**p;*ct*o*=*dit&sectio*=**
2: e**m**ik*pedia.*r*/wi*i/Kingdom*of_J*rusa*em
3: e*.*.w*k*p*dia.or*/w*ki/*ous*_of_Lorra*ne
4: en.m.wikipedi*.*r*/**ki*Leo*o*d*_Duk**of_Lor*aine
5: en*m.*i**pedia*or*/*i*i/*rancis_I,_Holy_R**an_Em*e*or
6: en*m.*ik*pedia.org*w**i/F*li*e*VI*of_Spain
7: en.*.w**ipe*ia.or*/*ik**Gran*_*itle_of_t*e_Em*e*or*of_Au*tr*a#*i*e_note-3
Unknown links are censored to prevent spreading illicit content.
In addition, in the 18th Century Francis of Lorraine's seemingly endless progeny infiltrated almost every european ruling house. Was Francis and his progeny particularly "Careerist?"
How would the rest of Europe react to the (effective) restoration of the Carolingian Empire? Would a Franco-German union be more sustainable long-term than a Hispano-German union?
Bonus question: What if the long-shot candidacies of Henry VIII of England or Frederick of Saxony succeed instead?
As far as I've been able to read, nothing in the Treaty of Pressburg, or really anything following the War of the Third Coalition obligated Francis to take that action. I also know that Francis also made himself Emperor of Austria, and held that title simultaneously with that of Holy Roman Emperor for three years. Was creating the former Empire in anticipation of losing the latter title? Or did Francis initially seek to keep both? Even so, why give up such a prestigious title when nothing forced him to do so?
I mean who would want a robe that let's large amounts of people see them naked!!! And why wasn't he wearing underwear!!
We are taught that Charles V became Holy Roman Emperor thanks to Jakob Fugger "the rich"'s financial contributions, which let him "buy" the Electors' votes. But why his rivals were Francis I of France and Henry VIII of England? Was it possible for the ruler of a state outside the imperial territory to become Emperor? If I'm not mistaken both France and England were not part of the Empire. I've thought about the possibility of personal unions between France and England on the one hand and an imperial duchy or territory on the other (something like the Great Britain-Hanover PU in the XVIII century) enabling the rulers of France and England to run as "candidates" for the imperial election, but I don't know if something similar actually existed at the time. Am I completely off-base? Thanks in advance.
