Angevin Kings Of England Puns

I'm sorry if this question isn't specific, I'll try to clarify here:

Henry II is the first King of England is sometimes credited in more recent times to be the founder of the Angevin Empire, because of his substantial lands in France. Based on my limited and quick research, the term Empire isn't really accurate, as he governed over his titles as seperate entities, similar to his ancestor William I. From what I understand, his lands in France were therefore subject to French law, and essentially under the King of France.

But Henry's highest title is King of England, and given that he had at times control over greater parts of France than the King himself, did Louis VII have any authority over Henry's lands on the continent? It seems that Louis was afraid Henry might eventually take over as King of France. Were Henry to lay claim to the Kingdom of France, would it have been seen as a revolt or conquest? (Sorry for the if question, no need to answer it if unclear)

I guess the basis of my question is the claim I've often seen that Medieval England wasn't a key player in continental European politics until the 100 years war, or even not until the Tudors. People that makes these claims often say that England is only being hyped up because of its later dominant Empire. This has often seemed odd to me, especially for the rule of the 3 Angevin kings.

To try to simplify: Were Henry's lands in France more of a loose confederation of weak vassals, or was Henry seen as a second king almost next to Luis?

Additionally, his marriage to Eleanor of Aquitaine must confirm him as a man of high importance. Did that marriage secuire his control over Aquitaine, or was it still ruled by Eleanor as she had prior to their marriage?

I'm sorry if my rambling here is confusing, and if I haven't simplified my answer. I'll welcome any insight into the complicated political landscape of this region in the mid 12th century, even if it doesn't relate to much of what I've discussed/asked

King John of England, called Lackland due to his loss of continental territories as a result of war with Philip II of France. But what if he had won and further Plantagenets had solidified their control and eventually transferred suzerainty over Normandy, Brittany, Maine, Anjou, Poitou, La Marche, Limoges, Auvergne, Aquitaine and Gascony from Île-de-France and the Kings of France to the Crown of England? Bonus points for ending up with a modern "UK" consisting of at least England, Normandy, Brittany, Anjou, Poitou and Aquitaine.

What else changes in Europe?

I've been consuming a lot of youtube videos and podcast on the history of the England and notice that at it's height, the Angevin Kings of England controlled what appears to be at about 50% of France, parts of Ireland and all of England. What factors prevented it from it just taking over all of France and what factors lead to it's decline and eventual loss of territory in France?

I don't have an understanding on the wealth and population of the Angevin territory in France vs rest of France. I also don't know if the rest of France was unified against the Angevin Empire. I'm looking to get a good understanding of the situation and the factors that contributed to Angevin Empire not being able to all of France and how they eventually lost their French territory.

So, I was just playing a chill colonizing game with Portugal, everything went pretty normal, England surrended Maine and started eating Irish Minors

But then, England attacked France with help from Castille while France was at war with Burgundy and absolutely destroyed Baguette, years later they pulled a Uno-reverse card and threatened war for Maine, which France accepted and gave Maine back to England

Then England full annexed Brittany and started yet another war with France, with this being the result

I don´t know about you guys, but for me England actually keeping it´s continental holdings and getting new ones was pretty shocking

https://preview.redd.it/v36z7mosm6s41.png?width=1280&format=png&auto=webp&s=3bd72d01aaa6ecdd681b68aee1e765a903e2b963

In what ways did they improve, if any. Or rather, did they have more limitations?

https://preview.redd.it/ezbprsvlmw581.jpg?width=1280&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=5e5d783fcb608fd611ce06ad5d6fabbd86efbe9a

sorry if this question is too wide or brief for this subreddit. I'm researching this area of history for my A-Level coursework and i'm looking for help in factors that led to its downfall. I've got points like the Great Anarchy 1139-53, the Third Crusade amd the wars with france but i'm struggling to think of a 4th point. I was originally going to include the Magna Carta and the 1st Barons war but the collapse was before this occured so it probably can't be included. There's also relations with the church during this time but i can't seem to find a why in how thats related to the fall of the empire. If there's anything you guys can think of for a 4th point or any feedback for my other points will be greatly appreciated. thanks in advance