Do they acquire the numbers from other reports and cumulate them to an approximate total or are there different workarounds?
What do you guys think of the government's current very probable decision of doing the Census of India on the basis of caste? Is it a good move?
On Monday the Commons votes to approve the Annual Police Grant which distributes £8 billion to the England and Wales police forces, varying from £2bn for the Met to £34m for Dyfed-Powys.
What makes for some interested reading are all the adjustments used to calculated how much money each force should receive.
Funding is calculated on the basis of £14 per resident and a number of top ups such as:
Police Crime Top-up 1
2.1917 multiplied by DAYTIME NET INFLOW PER RESIDENT POPULATION;
plus 0.2444 multiplied by LOG OF WEIGHTED BARS PER 100 HECTARES;
plus 13.4246 multiplied by INCOME SUPPORT/INCOME BASED JSA/GUARANTEE ELEMENT OF PENSION CREDIT CLAIMANTS;
plus 28.2485 multiplied by SINGLE PARENT HOUSEHOLDS
or
Police Crime Top-up 5
0.2690 multiplied by LOG OF WEIGHTED BARS PER 100 HECTARES;
plus 29.8811 multiplied by STUDENT HOUSING;
plus 117.5751 multiplied by YOUNG MALE UNEMPLOYMENTRELATED BENEFIT CLAIMANTS
According to the glossary, most of the data used is either from the 2001 census or from 2011 ONS data.
eg.
STUDENT HOUSING The proportion of households that contain all students, calculated using information from the 2001 Census.
So why do they use such out of date data? The formula was initially proposed in 2013 so they could have used more recent census data and the latest claimant etc. figures. It's not like these are not publicly available.
Surely a lot of police forces are getting screwed over following all the changes that have occurred in the economy since 2001?
I've not looked any deeper, but it seems there may be some interesting maneuvering behind how these numbers get put together.
